A patient had a cesarean delivery due to placenta previa.Which statement by the patient would indicate that she understands why she had the cesarean delivery?
“The placenta separated before the baby was ready to be born.”.
“The placenta was blocking the opening of the womb.”.
“The placenta was at the top of the womb.”.
“The placenta was growing too large.”.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. “The placenta was blocking the opening of the womb.”
This statement shows that the patient understands that placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers or is near the internal os of the cervix, which prevents a safe vaginal delivery. The patient would need a cesarean delivery to avoid bleeding and complications.
Choice A is wrong because it describes placental abruption, not placenta previa.
Placental abruption is when the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, which can cause severe bleeding and fetal distress.
Choice C is wrong because it describes a normal position of the placenta at the top of the womb.
This does not interfere with vaginal delivery and does not cause bleeding.
Choice D is wrong because it describes placenta increta or percreta, not placenta previa.
Placenta increta or percreta is when the placenta grows too deeply into or through the uterine wall, which can cause severe bleeding and damage to the uterus and other organs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Apply ice to her perineal area.This is because ice can help reduce swelling and pain in the episiotomy wound, which is a cut made in the tissue between the vagina and anus during childbirth.Ice should be applied for the first 24 to 48 hours after delivery.
Choice A is wrong because Kegel exercises, which involve contracting and relaxing the pelvic floor muscles, are not recommended for the first 12 hours after an episiotomy.They can increase blood flow and inflammation in the area, and may interfere with healing.
Choice C is wrong because keeping her hips slightly elevated can cause pressure on the episiotomy wound and increase discomfort.It can also affect blood circulation and drainage in the area.
Choice D is wrong because observing her perineal area for signs of infection is not a nursing action that should be included in her plan of care for the first 12 hours.Infection is rare in episiotomy wounds, and signs of infection usually appear after 24 hours or later.However, the nurse should teach the patient how to keep the area clean and dry, and when to report any signs of infection, such as fever, pus, or foul-smelling discharge.
Normal ranges for episiotomy healing are:
• Stitches dissolve within 2 to 4 weeks
• Pain and swelling subside within a few days to a week
• Wound heals completely within 4 to 6 weeks
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions.The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.
A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.
Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction.Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.
Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started.Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do.Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.
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