A patient comes to the antepartal clinic for her visit and provides the nurse with information.
What piece of information places this patient at high risk for exposure to teratogenic agents?
She lives with two dogs at home.
She works as a part-time oncology nurse.
She is lacto-ova vegetarian.
She commutes to work on a train.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. She works as a part-time oncology nurse. This is because oncology nurses are exposed to teratogenic agents, which are substances that can cause abnormalities in an exposed fetus. Teratogenic agents can cross the placenta and alter fetal morphology or function. Examples of teratogenic agents are lead, methyl mercury, polychlorinated biphenyls, lithium, vitamin K antagonists, tobacco, rubella, cytomegalovirus, ionizing agents, hyperthermia, diabetes, and some drugs.
Choice A is wrong because living with two dogs at home does not pose a high risk for exposure to teratogenic agents.Dogs can be beneficial for pregnant women as they provide companionship and exercise.
Choice C is wrong because being a lacto-ova vegetarian does not pose a high risk for exposure to teratogenic agents.Lacto-ova vegetarians can get adequate nutrition from plant-based foods, dairy products, and eggs.
Choice D is wrong because commuting to work on a train does not pose a high risk for exposure to teratogenic agents.Trains are a safe and convenient mode of transportation for pregnant women.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A patient who weighed less than 5 lb (2,268 gm) at birth is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR).This is because low birth weight is a possible indicator of genetic factors or placental insufficiency that can affect fetal growth.
Choice B is wrong because an ectopic pregnancy one year ago does not increase the risk of IUGR.An ectopic pregnancy is when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.It does not affect the placental function or fetal development in a subsequent pregnancy.
Choice C is wrong because a mitral valve prolapse does not increase the risk of IUGR.
A mitral valve prolapse is when the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart does not close properly.It usually does not cause any symptoms or complications during pregnancy, unless it is associated with severe regurgitation or arrhythmias.
Choice D is wrong because the father’s age of 42 years old does not increase the risk of IUGR.The father’s age may affect the risk of chromosomal abnormalities or congenital anomalies in the fetus, but not the fetal growth.
Some of the other risk factors for IUGR include maternal smoking, alcohol, or drug use, medical conditions like anemia or lupus, infections such as rubella or syphilis, carrying twins or multiples, high blood pressure, gestational diabetes, and placenta problems.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A: “The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time.” This is because the client is experiencing lochia serosa, which is a brownish discharge that occurs from about day 4 to day 10 postpartum.
Lochia serosa is composed of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.
It indicates that the placental site is healing and the uterus is involuting.
Choice B is wrong because fever is a sign of infection, not normal lochia.
Choice C is wrong because ovulation usually does not resume until 6 weeks postpartum for nonbreastfeeding women and later for breastfeeding women.
Choice D is wrong because iron supplements do not affect lochia color or amount.
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