On her second postpartum day, the mother of a newborn says, “The doctor says the baby has physiologic jaundice.
Even though it is supposed to be normal, I don’t understand why it occurs.” Which fact regarding physiologic jaundice should form the basis of the nurse’s response?
It is caused by an increase in neonatal metabolism.
It is related to the destruction of fetal red blood cells.
It is caused by an antigen-antibody reaction.
It is related to the immaturity of the reticuloendothelial system.
The Correct Answer is B
Physiologic jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs when the baby’s blood contains an excess of bilirubin, a yellow pigment produced during the normal breakdown of red blood cells.In the womb, the mother’s liver removes bilirubin for the baby, but after birth the baby’s own liver must take over this function.Because the baby has more red blood cells than an adult and their liver is still immature, they may not be able to process all the bilirubin and it may build up in their skin and eyes, causing a yellowish appearance.
Choice A is wrong because it is not an increase in neonatal metabolism that causes physiologic jaundice, but rather a decrease in hepatic metabolism of bilirubin.
Choice C is wrong because it describes a different type of jaundice called hemolytic jaundice, which occurs when there is an incompatibility between the blood types of the mother and the baby, leading to an immune reaction that destroys the baby’s red blood cells faster than they can be replaced.
Choice D is wrong because it confuses the reticuloendothelial system with the hepatic system.
The reticuloendothelial system is a network of cells and tissues that are involved in immune responses and phagocytosis (the ingestion of foreign particles or cells).
The hepatic system is the system of organs and structures that are involved in liver functions, such as bile production and detoxification.
Normal ranges for bilirubin levels in newborns are 1 to 12 mg/dL (17 to 205 micromol/L) for total bilirubin and 0.2 to 1.4 mg/dL (3 to 24 micromol/L) for direct bilirubin.
Physiologic jaundice usually peaks at 3 to 5 days after birth and resolves by 2 weeks of age.
It does not require treatment unless the bilirubin levels are very high or rising rapidly, which may indicate a more serious condition or a risk of brain damage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because the first priority for a pregnant woman with acute abdominal pain is to assess the fetal well-being and rule out any obstetric complications such as placental abruption, uterine rupture, or preterm labor.Fetal heart tones can indicate the presence and viability of the fetus and alert the nurse to any signs of fetal distress or hypoxia.
Choice A: Obtain a full history is wrong because it is not the most urgent action.
A full history can provide valuable information about the possible causes of abdominal pain, but it should not delay the assessment of fetal status and maternal vital signs.
Choice B: Examine the cervix for dilation is wrong because it can be harmful in some cases.A digital cervical examination should be avoided until placenta previa is ruled out by ultrasound, as it can cause bleeding and worsen the condition.
Moreover, cervical dilation alone does not indicate the cause or severity of abdominal pain.
Choice D: Palpate for uterine contraction frequency is wrong because it is not the most reliable method to assess labor.Uterine contractions can be measured by external tocodynamometry or internal intrauterine pressure catheter, which can provide more accurate and objective data than manual palpation.
Furthermore, uterine contractions do not necessarily indicate labor, as they can also be caused by other conditions such as dehydration, infection, or irritable uterus.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions.The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.
A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.
Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction.Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.
Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started.Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do.Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.
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