On her second postpartum day, the mother of a newborn says, “The doctor says the baby has physiologic jaundice.
Even though it is supposed to be normal, I don’t understand why it occurs.” Which fact regarding physiologic jaundice should form the basis of the nurse’s response?

It is caused by an increase in neonatal metabolism.

It is related to the destruction of fetal red blood cells.

It is caused by an antigen-antibody reaction.

It is related to the immaturity of the reticuloendothelial system.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Neonatal Jaundice | Geeky Medics

Physiologic jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs when the baby’s blood contains an excess of bilirubin, a yellow pigment produced during the normal breakdown of red blood cells.In the womb, the mother’s liver removes bilirubin for the baby, but after birth the baby’s own liver must take over this function.Because the baby has more red blood cells than an adult and their liver is still immature, they may not be able to process all the bilirubin and it may build up in their skin and eyes, causing a yellowish appearance.

Choice A is wrong because it is not an increase in neonatal metabolism that causes physiologic jaundice, but rather a decrease in hepatic metabolism of bilirubin.

Choice C is wrong because it describes a different type of jaundice called hemolytic jaundice, which occurs when there is an incompatibility between the blood types of the mother and the baby, leading to an immune reaction that destroys the baby’s red blood cells faster than they can be replaced.

Choice D is wrong because it confuses the reticuloendothelial system with the hepatic system.

The reticuloendothelial system is a network of cells and tissues that are involved in immune responses and phagocytosis (the ingestion of foreign particles or cells).

The hepatic system is the system of organs and structures that are involved in liver functions, such as bile production and detoxification.

Normal ranges for bilirubin levels in newborns are 1 to 12 mg/dL (17 to 205 micromol/L) for total bilirubin and 0.2 to 1.4 mg/dL (3 to 24 micromol/L) for direct bilirubin.

Physiologic jaundice usually peaks at 3 to 5 days after birth and resolves by 2 weeks of age.

It does not require treatment unless the bilirubin levels are very high or rising rapidly, which may indicate a more serious condition or a risk of brain damage.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions.The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.

A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.

Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction.Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.

Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started.Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.

Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do.Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.

A. “The placenta separated before the baby was ready to be born.”. B. “The placenta was blocking the opening of the womb.”. C. “The placenta was at the top of the womb.”. D. “The placenta was growing too large.”.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B.“The placenta was blocking the opening of the womb.”

This statement shows that the patient understands that placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers or is near the internal os of the cervix, which prevents a safe vaginal delivery.The patient would need a cesarean delivery to avoid bleeding and complications.

Choice A is wrong because it describes placental abruption, not placenta previa.

Placental abruption is when the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, which can cause severe bleeding and fetal distress.

Choice C is wrong because it describes a normal position of the placenta at the top of the womb.

This does not interfere with vaginal delivery and does not cause bleeding.

Choice D is wrong because it describes placenta increta or percreta, not placenta previa.

Placenta increta or percreta is when the placenta grows too deeply into or through the uterine wall, which can cause severe bleeding and damage to the uterus and other organs.

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On her second postpartum day, the mother of a newborn says, “The doctor says the baby has physiologic jaundice. Even though it is supposed to be normal, I don’t understand why it occurs.” Which fact regarding physiologic jaundice should form the basis of the nurse’s response?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The physician prescribes prostaglandin (PGE2) gel for a patient being admitted for induction of labor. Which finding would best indicate that the prostaglandin gel is effective?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient had a cesarean delivery due to placenta previa.Which statement by the patient would indicate that she understands why she had the cesarean delivery?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client who is 22 weeks pregnant with a twin gestation comes to the clinic. The nurse instructs the client in self-care for the third trimester of pregnancy. Which statement made by the client would indicate the need for further teaching?

A client who is two weeks postpartum calls the office and tells a nurse, "l am having a small amount of brownish discharge from my vagina." Which response is appropriate for the nurse to make?

A patient’s amniotic fluid is meconium-stained. Which action should the nurse plan to take?

A 14-year-old patient is 10 weeks pregnant. In order to plan nutritional counseling for this patient, the nurse should have which understanding about adolescents’ nutritional needs during pregnancy?

A nurse is explaining physiological jaundice to a nursing student.Which of the following should the nurse include when discussing risk factors for neonatal physiological jaundice?

A patient had an episiotomy during her delivery. Which nursing action should be included in her plan of care for the first 12 hours?

A 14-year-old patient visits the antepartal clinic because she has missed three menstrual periods.The patient is to have a pelvic examination. In addition to explaining the procedure, which measure would best help reduce the patient’s anxiety?

The nurse is assigned to care for the postpartum client during her shift. The nurse knows one of the most common risk factors for early (PPH) postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. When providing care, the nurse would plan to:.

On her second postpartum day, the mother of a newborn says, “The doctor says the baby has physiologic jaundice.
Even though it is supposed to be normal, I don’t understand why it occurs.” Which fact regarding physiologic jaundice should form the basis of the nurse’s response?