On her second postpartum day, the mother of a newborn says, “The doctor says the baby has physiologic jaundice.
Even though it is supposed to be normal, I don’t understand why it occurs.” Which fact regarding physiologic jaundice should form the basis of the nurse’s response?
It is caused by an increase in neonatal metabolism.
It is related to the destruction of fetal red blood cells.
It is caused by an antigen-antibody reaction.
It is related to the immaturity of the reticuloendothelial system.
The Correct Answer is B
Physiologic jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs when the baby’s blood contains an excess of bilirubin, a yellow pigment produced during the normal breakdown of red blood cells.In the womb, the mother’s liver removes bilirubin for the baby, but after birth the baby’s own liver must take over this function.Because the baby has more red blood cells than an adult and their liver is still immature, they may not be able to process all the bilirubin and it may build up in their skin and eyes, causing a yellowish appearance.
Choice A is wrong because it is not an increase in neonatal metabolism that causes physiologic jaundice, but rather a decrease in hepatic metabolism of bilirubin.
Choice C is wrong because it describes a different type of jaundice called hemolytic jaundice, which occurs when there is an incompatibility between the blood types of the mother and the baby, leading to an immune reaction that destroys the baby’s red blood cells faster than they can be replaced.
Choice D is wrong because it confuses the reticuloendothelial system with the hepatic system.
The reticuloendothelial system is a network of cells and tissues that are involved in immune responses and phagocytosis (the ingestion of foreign particles or cells).
The hepatic system is the system of organs and structures that are involved in liver functions, such as bile production and detoxification.
Normal ranges for bilirubin levels in newborns are 1 to 12 mg/dL (17 to 205 micromol/L) for total bilirubin and 0.2 to 1.4 mg/dL (3 to 24 micromol/L) for direct bilirubin.
Physiologic jaundice usually peaks at 3 to 5 days after birth and resolves by 2 weeks of age.
It does not require treatment unless the bilirubin levels are very high or rising rapidly, which may indicate a more serious condition or a risk of brain damage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle.It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects.Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.
Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home.It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.
Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.
The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.
Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.
This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.
The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions.The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.
A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.
Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction.Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.
Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started.Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do.Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.
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