On her second postpartum day, the mother of a newborn says, “The doctor says the baby has physiologic jaundice.
Even though it is supposed to be normal, I don’t understand why it occurs.” Which fact regarding physiologic jaundice should form the basis of the nurse’s response?
It is caused by an increase in neonatal metabolism.
It is related to the destruction of fetal red blood cells.
It is caused by an antigen-antibody reaction.
It is related to the immaturity of the reticuloendothelial system.
The Correct Answer is B
Physiologic jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs when the baby’s blood contains an excess of bilirubin, a yellow pigment produced during the normal breakdown of red blood cells.In the womb, the mother’s liver removes bilirubin for the baby, but after birth the baby’s own liver must take over this function.Because the baby has more red blood cells than an adult and their liver is still immature, they may not be able to process all the bilirubin and it may build up in their skin and eyes, causing a yellowish appearance.
Choice A is wrong because it is not an increase in neonatal metabolism that causes physiologic jaundice, but rather a decrease in hepatic metabolism of bilirubin.
Choice C is wrong because it describes a different type of jaundice called hemolytic jaundice, which occurs when there is an incompatibility between the blood types of the mother and the baby, leading to an immune reaction that destroys the baby’s red blood cells faster than they can be replaced.
Choice D is wrong because it confuses the reticuloendothelial system with the hepatic system.
The reticuloendothelial system is a network of cells and tissues that are involved in immune responses and phagocytosis (the ingestion of foreign particles or cells).
The hepatic system is the system of organs and structures that are involved in liver functions, such as bile production and detoxification.
Normal ranges for bilirubin levels in newborns are 1 to 12 mg/dL (17 to 205 micromol/L) for total bilirubin and 0.2 to 1.4 mg/dL (3 to 24 micromol/L) for direct bilirubin.
Physiologic jaundice usually peaks at 3 to 5 days after birth and resolves by 2 weeks of age.
It does not require treatment unless the bilirubin levels are very high or rising rapidly, which may indicate a more serious condition or a risk of brain damage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because circumcision is a surgical procedure that involves cutting off the foreskin of the penis, which may affect the urinary function of the baby.The nurse should make sure that the baby can urinate normally and without pain after the circumcision.
The amount of urine should be adequate for the baby’s weight and hydration status.
Choice B is wrong because the erectile ability of the penis is not affected by circumcision and is not a priority for discharge planning.
Choice C is wrong because the position of the urethral opening on the penis is not related to circumcision and should be assessed at birth, not at discharge.
Choice D is wrong because the presence of a small amount of white-yellow exudate around the glans tissue is normal and expected after circumcision.It is part of the healing process and does not indicate infection.The nurse should instruct the parents on how to care for the circumcised penis and when to seek medical attention if there are signs of complications.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Decreased respirations.Magnesium sulfate is a medication that can causerespiratory depression, which means it can slow down or stop breathing.
This is a serious side effect that needs to be monitored closely by the nurse.
Choice A is wrong because increased Babinski reflex is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate.
The Babinski reflex is a normal response in infants, but abnormal in adults.
It occurs when the big toe bends upward and the other toes fan out when the sole of the foot is stroked.Magnesium sulfate can causepoor reflexes, but not specifically the Babinski reflex.
Choice B is wrong because diarrhea is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate when given intravenously or intramuscularly.Diarrhea can occur when magnesium sulfate is taken orally as a laxative, but that is not the case in this question.
Choice C is wrong because tetany is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate.
Tetany is a condition that causes muscle spasms and cramps due to low levels of calcium in the blood.Magnesium sulfate can actually causehypocalcemia, which means low levels of calcium in the blood, but this does not usually result in tetany.Tetany is more likely to occur when there is low magnesium in the blood, which is calledhypomagnesemia.
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