A client who is two weeks postpartum calls the office and tells a nurse, "l am having a small amount of brownish discharge from my vagina." Which response is appropriate for the nurse to make?
"The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time."
"Have you been running a fever?".
“It sounds as if you have begun to ovulate again."
"Are you taking iron supplements?".
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A: “The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time.” This is because the client is experiencing lochia serosa, which is a brownish discharge that occurs from about day 4 to day 10 postpartum.
Lochia serosa is composed of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.
It indicates that the placental site is healing and the uterus is involuting.
Choice B is wrong because fever is a sign of infection, not normal lochia.
Choice C is wrong because ovulation usually does not resume until 6 weeks postpartum for nonbreastfeeding women and later for breastfeeding women.
Choice D is wrong because iron supplements do not affect lochia color or amount.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. The increase in maternal blood volume is greater than the increase in maternal red blood cells.
This means that the concentration of hemoglobin and hematocrit in the blood is diluted by the extra fluid.
This is a normal physiological adaptation to pregnancy and does not indicate iron deficiency anemia.
Choice A is wrong because placental hormones do not chelate maternal iron.
Chelation is a process of binding metal ions to organic molecules, which is not relevant to this question.
Choice B is wrong because fetal demand for iron is not greater than maternal intake.
The mother can meet the iron needs of the fetus by increasing her dietary intake and taking iron supplements.
Choice C is wrong because maternal intestinal absorption of iron is not decreased during pregnancy.
In fact, it may be increased due to higher levels of estrogen and progesterone.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because epidural anesthesia can cause hypotension (low blood pressure) which can affect the placental blood flow and fetal oxygenation.
The nurse should monitor the patient’s blood pressure frequently and intervene if it drops below the baseline.
Choice A is wrong because assessing the patient’s urine for acetone is not relevant to the side effects of epidural anesthesia.Acetone in urine can indicate diabetic ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes that occurs when the body breaks down fat for energy due to lack of insulin.
However, this is not related to epidural anesthesia.
Choice B is wrong because monitoring the patient’s deep tendon reflexes is not relevant to the side effects of epidural anesthesia.Deep tendon reflexes can be affected by magnesium sulfate, a medication used to prevent seizures in patients with preeclampsia (a condition characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria in pregnancy).
However, this is not related to epidural anesthesia.
Choice C is wrong because assessing the patient’s pupillary accommodation is not relevant to the side effects of epidural anesthesia.
Pupillary accommodation is the ability of the eye to adjust its focus from distant to near objects.It can be impaired by drugs that affect the nervous system, such as opioids or anticholinergics.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.