A client who is two weeks postpartum calls the office and tells a nurse, "l am having a small amount of brownish discharge from my vagina." Which response is appropriate for the nurse to make?
"The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time."
"Have you been running a fever?".
“It sounds as if you have begun to ovulate again."
"Are you taking iron supplements?".
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A: “The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time.” This is because the client is experiencing lochia serosa, which is a brownish discharge that occurs from about day 4 to day 10 postpartum.
Lochia serosa is composed of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.
It indicates that the placental site is healing and the uterus is involuting.
Choice B is wrong because fever is a sign of infection, not normal lochia.
Choice C is wrong because ovulation usually does not resume until 6 weeks postpartum for nonbreastfeeding women and later for breastfeeding women.
Choice D is wrong because iron supplements do not affect lochia color or amount.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Assess the client’s blood pressure.Methylergonovine is a uterotonic medication that can cause hypertension and is contraindicated for clients with preeclampsia or cardiac disease.
Therefore, the nurse should check the client’s blood pressure before administering this medication to ensure it is within normal range (120/80 mm Hg or lower).
Choice A is wrong because assessing the client’s pain scale is not a priority assessment before giving methylergonovine.
Pain is not a contraindication for this medication and does not affect its effectiveness.
Choice B is wrong because assessing the client’s respiratory rate is not a priority assessment before giving methylergonovine.
Respiratory rate is not affected by this medication and does not indicate any adverse effects.
Choice D is wrong because assessing the client’s last bowel movement is not a priority assessment before giving methylergonovine.
Bowel movement is not related to postpartum hemorrhage or uterine atony, which are the indications for this medication.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet.This is because a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks is considered post-mature and has lost the protective vernix caseosa that covers the skin of most newborns.The skin of a post-mature newborn is also more exposed to the amniotic fluid, which can cause it to peel and crack.
Choice A is wrong because sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot are characteristic of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.
Choice B is wrong because vernix caseosa is abundant in preterm newborns and decreases as gestational age increases.A post-mature newborn would have little or no vernix caseosa on the skin.
Choice D is wrong because a large amount of fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the back and shoulders is also typical of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.Lanugo usually disappears by 36 weeks of gestation.A post-mature newborn would have little or no lanugo on the body.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.