A client who is two weeks postpartum calls the office and tells a nurse, "l am having a small amount of brownish discharge from my vagina." Which response is appropriate for the nurse to make?

"The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time."

"Have you been running a fever?".

“It sounds as if you have begun to ovulate again."

"Are you taking iron supplements?".

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is choice A: “The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time.” This is because the client is experiencing lochia serosa, which is a brownish discharge that occurs from about day 4 to day 10 postpartum.

Lochia serosa is composed of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.

It indicates that the placental site is healing and the uterus is involuting.

Choice B is wrong because fever is a sign of infection, not normal lochia.

Choice C is wrong because ovulation usually does not resume until 6 weeks postpartum for nonbreastfeeding women and later for breastfeeding women.

Choice D is wrong because iron supplements do not affect lochia color or amount.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions.The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.

A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.

Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction.Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.

Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started.Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.

Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do.Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.

A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis. B. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease her risk of developing pericarditis. C. The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will help to decrease her risk of developing chorioamnionitis. D. The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing a systemic infection.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery.Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.

Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves.It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.

Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart.It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.

Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus.Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.

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A client who is two weeks postpartum calls the office and tells a nurse, "l am having a small amount of brownish discharge from my vagina." Which response is appropriate for the nurse to make?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The physician prescribes prostaglandin (PGE2) gel for a patient being admitted for induction of labor. Which finding would best indicate that the prostaglandin gel is effective?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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