A client who is two weeks postpartum calls the office and tells a nurse, "l am having a small amount of brownish discharge from my vagina." Which response is appropriate for the nurse to make?

"The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time."

"Have you been running a fever?".

“It sounds as if you have begun to ovulate again."

"Are you taking iron supplements?".

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is choice A: “The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time.” This is because the client is experiencing lochia serosa, which is a brownish discharge that occurs from about day 4 to day 10 postpartum.

Lochia serosa is composed of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.

It indicates that the placental site is healing and the uterus is involuting.

Choice B is wrong because fever is a sign of infection, not normal lochia.

Choice C is wrong because ovulation usually does not resume until 6 weeks postpartum for nonbreastfeeding women and later for breastfeeding women.

Choice D is wrong because iron supplements do not affect lochia color or amount.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D. Encourage the client to drink cold, carbonated fluids throughout the day.This helps to relieve the shoulder pain caused by the carbon dioxide gas used to inflate the abdomen during laparoscopy.

The gas irritates the diaphragm, which refers pain to the shoulder.Drinking cold, carbonated fluids can help expel the gas and reduce the pain.

Choice A is wrong because an abdominal binder is not necessary for a laparoscopic procedure.It is more commonly used for abdominal surgeries that involve a large incision.

Choice B is wrong because a rocking chair is not helpful for a client who had a laparoscopic BTL.It is more useful for a client who had a vaginal delivery to promote comfort and uterine involution.

Choice C is wrong because keeping the head of the bed flat for six hours is not indicated for a laparoscopic BTL.It may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism and pulmonary embolism due to prolonged immobility.The client should be encouraged to ambulate as soon as possible after surgery.

A. The patient’s cervix is dilated. B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced. C. The patient’s cervix is softened. D. The patient’s uterus is softened.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions.The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.

A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.

Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction.Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.

Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started.Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.

Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do.Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.

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A client who is two weeks postpartum calls the office and tells a nurse, "l am having a small amount of brownish discharge from my vagina." Which response is appropriate for the nurse to make?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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