A client who is two weeks postpartum calls the office and tells a nurse, "l am having a small amount of brownish discharge from my vagina." Which response is appropriate for the nurse to make?
"The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time."
"Have you been running a fever?".
“It sounds as if you have begun to ovulate again."
"Are you taking iron supplements?".
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A: “The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time.” This is because the client is experiencing lochia serosa, which is a brownish discharge that occurs from about day 4 to day 10 postpartum.
Lochia serosa is composed of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.
It indicates that the placental site is healing and the uterus is involuting.
Choice B is wrong because fever is a sign of infection, not normal lochia.
Choice C is wrong because ovulation usually does not resume until 6 weeks postpartum for nonbreastfeeding women and later for breastfeeding women.
Choice D is wrong because iron supplements do not affect lochia color or amount.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Remind the patient that the nurse will stay with her during the examination.
This measure would help reduce the patient’s anxiety by providing emotional support and reassurance.
The patient may feel scared, embarrassed, or vulnerable during the pelvic examination, especially since she is young and pregnant.
Having a trusted person with her can help her cope with these feelings.
Choice A is wrong because it may imply that the examination will be painful and increase the patient’s anxiety.
Choice B is wrong because it may make the patient feel like she is not being treated as an individual and that her concerns are not valid.
Choice D is wrong because it may make the patient feel rushed or pressured and not allow her to ask questions or express her feelings.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A transverse lie means that the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, instead of head-down or breech.
This position makes vaginal delivery impossible and increases the risk of umbilical cord prolapse, which can compromise fetal oxygen supply.Therefore, a cesarean delivery is indicated for a fetus in a transverse lie.
Choice A is wrong because having extremely slender hips does not necessarily mean that a woman cannot deliver vaginally.
The size and shape of the pelvis, not the external appearance, determines the adequacy of the birth canal.A trial of labor may be attempted for women with borderline pelvic measurements.
Choice C is wrong because fetal hyperactivity is not a reason for a cesarean delivery.
Fetal movements may vary depending on the time of day, maternal activity, maternal blood sugar level, and other factors.Fetal well-being can be assessed by fetal heart rate monitoring and biophysical profile.
Choice D is wrong because having a posterior cervix does not indicate the need for a cesarean delivery.
A posterior cervix means that the cervix is tilted toward the back of the uterus, which may make cervical dilation slower and more painful.However, with adequate contractions and maternal pushing, the cervix can move to an anterior position and allow vaginal delivery.
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