A client in preterm labor is managed with terbutaline.
Which will a nurse need to consider in planning care for this client?
Once the client’s intravenous terbutaline is discontinued, she will be taught to self-administer the drug parenterally.
The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
The client will remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
After 12 hours without contractions, the client will ambulate in the hallway.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle. It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects. Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.
Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home. It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.
Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.
The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.
Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.
This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.
The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Insufficient relaxation of the uterus between contractions.This is also known astachysystoleorhyperstimulation, which can cause fetal distress and uterine rupture.Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions, but it can also cause them to be too strong or too frequent if given in high doses or for too long.
Choice A is wrong because oxytocin does not decrease body temperature.
Choice B is wrong because oxytocin does not cause maternal cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice C is wrong because oxytocin does not cause urinary retention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Encourage the client to drink cold, carbonated fluids throughout the day.This helps to relieve the shoulder pain caused by the carbon dioxide gas used to inflate the abdomen during laparoscopy.
The gas irritates the diaphragm, which refers pain to the shoulder.Drinking cold, carbonated fluids can help expel the gas and reduce the pain.
Choice A is wrong because an abdominal binder is not necessary for a laparoscopic procedure.It is more commonly used for abdominal surgeries that involve a large incision.
Choice B is wrong because a rocking chair is not helpful for a client who had a laparoscopic BTL.It is more useful for a client who had a vaginal delivery to promote comfort and uterine involution.
Choice C is wrong because keeping the head of the bed flat for six hours is not indicated for a laparoscopic BTL.It may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism and pulmonary embolism due to prolonged immobility.The client should be encouraged to ambulate as soon as possible after surgery.
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