A client in preterm labor is managed with terbutaline.
Which will a nurse need to consider in planning care for this client?
Once the client’s intravenous terbutaline is discontinued, she will be taught to self-administer the drug parenterally.
The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
The client will remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
After 12 hours without contractions, the client will ambulate in the hallway.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle. It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects. Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.
Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home. It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.
Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.
The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.
Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.
This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.
The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless uterine contractions that occur throughout pregnancy, but are more noticeable in the third trimester.They do not indicate labor, but rather help in softening and ripening the cervix.
Choice A is wrong because the patient does not need to time the contractions unless they become regular, painful, and closer together, which are signs of true labor.
Choice B is wrong because documenting fetal activity daily is not related to Braxton Hicks contractions.Fetal activity is monitored to assess fetal well-being and detect any signs of fetal distress.
Choice C is wrong because losing the mucus plug is also not related to Braxton Hicks contractions.The mucus plug is a thick plug of mucus that seals the cervical canal during pregnancy and may be expelled before or during labor.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Answer and explanation..
The correct answer is choice C. Jitteriness.Jitteriness is a sign of low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) which is common in infants of diabetic mothers (IDM) because they have high levels of insulin in their blood that lower their glucose levels after birth.Hypoglycemia can also cause other symptoms such as seizures, lethargy, poor feeding, sweating, trembling, and pale complexion.
Choice A is wrong because abdominal distention is not a typical symptom of IDM.
It can be caused by other conditions such as intestinal obstruction or infection.
Choice B is wrong because high-pitched cry is not a specific symptom of IDM.
It can be caused by many factors such as pain, hunger, or neurological problems.
Choice D is wrong because excessive drooling is not a common symptom of IDM.
It can be a sign of oral problems such as teething or infection.
Normal ranges for blood glucose in newborns are 40 to 150 mg/dL (2.2 to 8.3 mmol/L).
IDM should be monitored closely for hypoglycemia and treated promptly with glucose if needed.
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