A client in preterm labor is managed with terbutaline.
Which will a nurse need to consider in planning care for this client?
Once the client’s intravenous terbutaline is discontinued, she will be taught to self-administer the drug parenterally.
The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
The client will remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
After 12 hours without contractions, the client will ambulate in the hallway.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle. It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects. Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.
Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home. It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.
Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.
The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.
Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.
This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.
The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. The woman’s temperature will increase when she is ovulating.This is because ovulation is triggered by a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH), which also causes a slight rise in basal body temperature (BBT).By measuring her BBT every morning before getting out of bed, the woman can detect this subtle change and identify her fertile window.
Choice A is wrong because ovulation typically occurs around 14 days before the next menstrual period, not seven days after the previous one.
The length of the menstrual cycle can vary from woman to woman, so counting days is not a reliable method of predicting ovulation.
Choice B is wrong because cervical mucus will appear clear, slippery and stretchy when the woman is ovulating, not tacky and cloudy.
This type of mucus helps sperm swim and survive in the reproductive tract.
The woman can check her cervical mucus by wiping with toilet paper or inserting a finger into her vagina.
Choice D is wrong because abdominal massage of the ovaries will not stimulate ovulation, and may even cause harm by injuring the delicate tissues or introducing infection.
Correct Answer is A
No explanation
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