A client in preterm labor is managed with terbutaline.
Which will a nurse need to consider in planning care for this client?
Once the client’s intravenous terbutaline is discontinued, she will be taught to self-administer the drug parenterally.
The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
The client will remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
After 12 hours without contractions, the client will ambulate in the hallway.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle. It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects. Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.
Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home. It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.
Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.
The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.
Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.
This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.
The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Gestational age of 35-38 weeks.
This is because preterm babies are more likely to develop jaundice due to their immature liver and increased breakdown of red blood cells.Babies born between 35 and 38 weeks are considered late preterm and have a higher risk of jaundice than full-term babies.
Choice A is wrong because African American ethnicity is not a risk factor for jaundice.In fact, Asian, European, or native American ethnicity are more associated with jaundice.
Choice B is wrong because meconium-stained amniotic fluid is not a risk factor for jaundice.
Meconium is the first stool of the baby and it may indicate fetal distress, but it does not affect the bilirubin level.
Choice C is wrong because bottle feeding is not a risk factor for jaundice.In fact, breastfeeding is more associated with jaundice due to dehydration and poor caloric intake.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The client should avoid sexual intercourse.Sexual intercourse may stimulate uterine contractions and increase the risk of preterm labor.The client should also avoid activities that may cause dehydration, infection, or stress.
Choice A is wrong because documenting urine output hourly is not necessary for a client with preterm labor who is discharged home.Urine output may be affected by hydration status, kidney function, or medication use, but it is not a reliable indicator of preterm labor.
Choice C is wrong because maintaining a darkened, quiet environment is not required for a client with preterm labor who is discharged home.The client may benefit from rest and relaxation, but there is no evidence that light or noise affects preterm labor.
Choice D is wrong because eating small, frequent meals is not specific to a client with preterm labor who is discharged home.Eating small, frequent meals may help with nausea, heartburn, or blood sugar control, but it does not prevent preterm labor.
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