A patient with no prenatal care is admitted to the labor and delivery unit.She is placed on an external fetal monitor, and an intravenous infusion is begun.
A tentative diagnosis of abruptio placentae is made.Which finding would support this diagnosis?
Sustained uterine hypertonicity.
Strong uterine contractions every 3-4 minutes.
Bile-colored vomitus.
Fetal heart rate acceleration with fetal activity.
The Correct Answer is A
This means that the uterus is constantly contracted and does not relax between contractions. This can cause the placenta to separate from the uterine wall, which is called placental abruption or abruptio placentae. Placental abruption can deprive the baby of oxygen and nutrients and cause heavy bleeding in the mother.
Choice B is wrong because strong uterine contractions every 3-4 minutes are normal during labor and do not indicate placental abruption.
Choice C is wrong because bile-colored vomitus is not a sign of placental abruption, but rather a sign of hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because fetal heart rate acceleration with fetal activity is a normal finding and indicates a healthy baby. Placental abruption can cause fetal distress and a decrease in fetal heart rate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis.A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections.Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS.The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: To prevent her from having convulsions.Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy.Magnesium sulfate can lower the cerebral perfusion pressure and prevent convulsions.However, magnesium sulfate does not affect the neonatal outcomes and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease blood pressure.It is used along with medications that help reduce blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease tidal volume.It can cause respiratory depression if the serum level is too high.
Choice C is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not prevent dehydration.It can cause fluid retention and pulmonary edema if given in excess.
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