During a clinic visit, a client reports to the nurse that she is having burning and numbness in her perineal area.
Further investigation reveals the client has herpes simplex virus (HSV) type II. Which information concerning herpes infection during pregnancy should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?

Herpes which appears initially during a pregnancy rarely reappears after delivery.

Weekly cultures of the herpes site will be performed during the last trimester of pregnancy.

It is rare to have more than one herpes outbreak during a pregnancy.

It will be necessary for a Cesarean section when labor begins.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The correct answer is choice D. It will be necessary for a Cesarean section when labor begins. This is because a pregnant person with herpes simplex virus (HSV) type II can pass the infection to the baby during childbirth, which can be life-threatening. A Cesarean section can lower the risk of infection by avoiding contact with the virus in the genital area.

Choice A is wrong because herpes can recur after delivery, especially if the person has a history of genital herpes before pregnancy. Choice B is wrong because weekly cultures of the herpes site are not recommended during pregnancy, as they are not reliable indicators of viral shedding or risk of transmission. Choice C is wrong because it is possible to have more than one herpes outbreak during pregnancy, especially if the person has a primary or nonprimary first-episode infection in the third trimester.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. The newborn’s nostrils flare slightly during respiration.This is a sign of respiratory distress in a newborn.

Flaring nostrils indicate that the newborn is working hard to breathe and may not be getting enough oxygen.

Choice B is wrong because the newborn’s hands and feet are blue and feel cool.This is a normal finding called acrocyanosis, which occurs due to immature peripheral circulation.

It usually resolves within 24 to 48 hours after birth.

Choice C is wrong because the newborn’s eyes move randomly when his head is turned to the side.This is a normal finding called nystagmus, which occurs due to immature eye muscles and coordination.

It usually disappears by 6 months of age.

Choice D is wrong because the newborn’s tongue thrusts forward when it is lightly touched.This is a normal finding called the extrusion reflex, which helps the newborn to suck and swallow.

It usually fades by 4 months of age.

A. Elevate the head of the infant’s crib. B. Apply a water-soluble ointment to the infant’s eyes. C. Dress the infant in a long-sleeved shirt. D. Keep the infant well hydrated.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

he correct answer is choice D. Keep the infant well hydrated.This is because phototherapy can cause dehydration due to increased insensible water loss from the skin.Hydration helps the infant excrete bilirubin in urine and stool.

Choice A is wrong because elevating the head of the infant’s crib does not affect bilirubin levels or phototherapy effectiveness.

Choice B is wrong because applying a water-soluble ointment to the infant’s eyes can interfere with eye protection and cause eye irritation.The infant’s eyes should be covered with opaque patches or goggles during phototherapy to prevent eye damage.

Choice C is wrong because dressing the infant in a long-sleeved shirt reduces the amount of skin exposed to light and decreases the efficacy of phototherapy.The infant should be undressed except for a diaper and eye protection during phototherapy.

Normal ranges for bilirubin levels vary depending on the age of the infant, the type of jaundice, and the method of measurement.Generally, bilirubin levels above 25 mg/dL are considered dangerous and require urgent treatment.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a newborn. Which finding may indicate a problem?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A newborn develops hyperbilirubinemia when 24 hours old and is prescribed phototherapy. Which measure is an important part of this newborn’s care plan?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A patient who is attending a family planning clinic is instructed in breast self-examination by a nurse. Which statement by the patient would indicate that she understands the instructions?

A client is at the antepartal clinic for a pregnancy test.Which finding, if present, would be considered a positive sign of pregnancy?

A patient’s labor is induced using an intravenous infusion of 1,000 mL Ringer’s lactate with 10 units of oxytocin. Two hours later, the nurse notes a pattern of late fetal heart rate decelerations detected on the fetal monitor.Which action is essential for the nurse to take first?

A nurse is caring for a client with postpartum hemorrhage. The provider has ordered Methylergonovine 200 mcg intravenously to be administered stat. The nurse should perform which priority assessment prior to administering this medication?

A 14-year-old patient visits the antepartal clinic because she has missed three menstrual periods.The patient is to have a pelvic examination. In addition to explaining the procedure, which measure would best help reduce the patient’s anxiety?

When assessing a newborn, which is the best method for the nurse to use to elicit the Moro reflex?

A nurse is caring for a primigravida whose cervix is 2 cm dilated, 75% effaced, and the fetal presenting part is at +2 station. The patient says to the nurse, “I want an epidural now.Why won’t someone give me an epidural?” Which response is most appropriate for the nurse to make?

A client with a history of diabetes mellitus (T1 D) is 32 weeks pregnant.The client returns to the clinic for a scheduled ultrasound and non-stress test. What should the nurse expect the non-stress test to determine?