A client who had pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is now postpartum. A nurse should closely monitor this client for which complication?
Hemorrhage.
Urinary retention.
Impending convulsion.
Thrombophlebitis.
The Correct Answer is C
This is because pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) can cause eclampsia, a condition characterized by seizures and coma.Eclampsia can occur during pregnancy, labor, or postpartum.
A nurse should monitor the client for signs of increased blood pressure, headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, and hyperreflexia, which may indicate an impending convulsion.
Choice A is wrong because hemorrhage is not a common complication of PIH.
Hemorrhage may occur due to other causes such as uterine atony, lacerations, or retained placenta.
Choice B is wrong because urinary retention is not a common complication of PIH.
Urinary retention may occur due to other causes such as anesthesia, trauma, or infection.
Choice D is wrong because thrombophlebitis is not a common complication of PIH.
Thrombophlebitis is a condition where a blood clot forms in a vein and causes inflammation.
It may occur due to other risk factors such as immobility, dehydration, or injury.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A nonstress test (NST) is a test in pregnancy that measures fetal heart rate and reaction to movement.Your pregnancy care provider performs a nonstress test to make sure the fetus is healthy and getting enough oxygen.It’s safe and painless, and gets its name because it puts no stress (nonstress) on you or the fetus.
Choice A is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure the mother’s ability to tolerate the discomfort of labor.A stress test is a different procedure that involves stimulating contractions and monitoring how the fetus responds.
Choice B is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure fetal lie, which is the position of the fetus in the uterus.
Fetal lie is usually determined by ultrasound or physical examination.
Choice D is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure maternal readiness for labor.A nonstress test typically happens after 28 weeks of pregnancy, when fetal heart rate starts reacting to movements.
Maternal readiness for labor is assessed by other factors, such as cervical dilation and effacement.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because late fetal heart rate decelerations are a sign of uteroplacental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.Oxytocin can cause uterine tachysystole, which is excessive and frequent contractions that reduce blood flow to the placenta.Therefore, stopping the oxytocin infusion can help improve placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation.
Choice A is wrong because documenting the findings is not a priority action in this situation.
The nurse should first intervene to address the cause of late decelerations and then document the actions and outcomes.
Choice C is wrong because raising the head of the patient’s bed 30 degrees does not directly affect the placental blood flow or fetal oxygenation.
It may help with maternal comfort and breathing, but it is not an essential action for late decelerations.
Choice D is wrong because notifying the health care provider is not the first action to take.The nurse should first attempt to correct the cause of late decelerations by pausing the oxytocin infusion and then notify the health care provider if there is no improvement or if there are other signs of fetal distress.
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