A client who had pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is now postpartum. A nurse should closely monitor this client for which complication?
Hemorrhage.
Urinary retention.
Impending convulsion.
Thrombophlebitis.
The Correct Answer is C
This is because pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) can cause eclampsia, a condition characterized by seizures and coma.Eclampsia can occur during pregnancy, labor, or postpartum.
A nurse should monitor the client for signs of increased blood pressure, headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, and hyperreflexia, which may indicate an impending convulsion.
Choice A is wrong because hemorrhage is not a common complication of PIH.
Hemorrhage may occur due to other causes such as uterine atony, lacerations, or retained placenta.
Choice B is wrong because urinary retention is not a common complication of PIH.
Urinary retention may occur due to other causes such as anesthesia, trauma, or infection.
Choice D is wrong because thrombophlebitis is not a common complication of PIH.
Thrombophlebitis is a condition where a blood clot forms in a vein and causes inflammation.
It may occur due to other risk factors such as immobility, dehydration, or injury.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet.This is because a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks is considered post-mature and has lost the protective vernix caseosa that covers the skin of most newborns.The skin of a post-mature newborn is also more exposed to the amniotic fluid, which can cause it to peel and crack.
Choice A is wrong because sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot are characteristic of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.
Choice B is wrong because vernix caseosa is abundant in preterm newborns and decreases as gestational age increases.A post-mature newborn would have little or no vernix caseosa on the skin.
Choice D is wrong because a large amount of fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the back and shoulders is also typical of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.Lanugo usually disappears by 36 weeks of gestation.A post-mature newborn would have little or no lanugo on the body.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Insufficient relaxation of the uterus between contractions.This is also known astachysystoleorhyperstimulation, which can cause fetal distress and uterine rupture.Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions, but it can also cause them to be too strong or too frequent if given in high doses or for too long.
Choice A is wrong because oxytocin does not decrease body temperature.
Choice B is wrong because oxytocin does not cause maternal cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice C is wrong because oxytocin does not cause urinary retention.
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