On her first visit, a patient had a baseline hemoglobin of 13.0 gm and a hematocrit of 42.9%.She has been taking ferrous sulfate tablets and eating an iron-rich diet.She returned to the clinic at 30 weeks gestation and has a hemoglobin of 11.0 gm and a hematocrit of 36.3%.She is concerned and confused about why these lab values have gone down.
In responding, which physiological change during pregnancy should the nurse describe to the patient?
The increase in the level of placental hormones tends to result in chelation of maternal iron.
Fetal demand for iron is greater than the maternal intake.
During the latter half of pregnancy, the maternal intestinal absorption of iron is decreased.
The increase in maternal blood volume is greater than the increase in maternal red blood cells.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D. The increase in maternal blood volume is greater than the increase in maternal red blood cells.
This means that the concentration of hemoglobin and hematocrit in the blood is diluted by the extra fluid.
This is a normal physiological adaptation to pregnancy and does not indicate iron deficiency anemia.
Choice A is wrong because placental hormones do not chelate maternal iron.
Chelation is a process of binding metal ions to organic molecules, which is not relevant to this question.
Choice B is wrong because fetal demand for iron is not greater than maternal intake.
The mother can meet the iron needs of the fetus by increasing her dietary intake and taking iron supplements.
Choice C is wrong because maternal intestinal absorption of iron is not decreased during pregnancy.
In fact, it may be increased due to higher levels of estrogen and progesterone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because the first priority for a pregnant woman with acute abdominal pain is to assess the fetal well-being and rule out any obstetric complications such as placental abruption, uterine rupture, or preterm labor.Fetal heart tones can indicate the presence and viability of the fetus and alert the nurse to any signs of fetal distress or hypoxia.
Choice A: Obtain a full history is wrong because it is not the most urgent action.
A full history can provide valuable information about the possible causes of abdominal pain, but it should not delay the assessment of fetal status and maternal vital signs.
Choice B: Examine the cervix for dilation is wrong because it can be harmful in some cases.A digital cervical examination should be avoided until placenta previa is ruled out by ultrasound, as it can cause bleeding and worsen the condition.
Moreover, cervical dilation alone does not indicate the cause or severity of abdominal pain.
Choice D: Palpate for uterine contraction frequency is wrong because it is not the most reliable method to assess labor.Uterine contractions can be measured by external tocodynamometry or internal intrauterine pressure catheter, which can provide more accurate and objective data than manual palpation.
Furthermore, uterine contractions do not necessarily indicate labor, as they can also be caused by other conditions such as dehydration, infection, or irritable uterus.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Insufficient relaxation of the uterus between contractions.This is also known astachysystoleorhyperstimulation, which can cause fetal distress and uterine rupture.Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions, but it can also cause them to be too strong or too frequent if given in high doses or for too long.
Choice A is wrong because oxytocin does not decrease body temperature.
Choice B is wrong because oxytocin does not cause maternal cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice C is wrong because oxytocin does not cause urinary retention.
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