A nurse is caring for a client who has gestational diabetes and is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 37 weeks of gestation due to suspected fetal compromise. What is the nurse’s best response to the client’s question as to why the amniocentesis test is being done?

“To determine fetal lung maturity.”.

“To assess the degree of fetal renal function.”.

“To test the amniotic fluid glucose level.”.

“To detect the presence of fetal congenital anomalies.”.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason:
At 37 weeks, especially in gestational diabetes, fetal lungs may still be immature. Amniocentesis checks lung maturity to ensure the baby can breathe effectively if early delivery is needed due to fetal compromise.

Choice B reason:
Fetal renal function is not typically assessed through amniocentesis at term. Kidney function is monitored via ultrasound, not by analyzing amniotic fluid at 37 weeks.

Choice C reason:
Amniotic fluid glucose levels are not used to manage gestational diabetes. Maternal blood glucose is the standard for monitoring and treatment.

Choice D reason:
Congenital anomalies are usually detected earlier in pregnancy. By 37 weeks, the focus of amniocentesis is on delivery planning, not anomaly detection.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This is because pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) can cause eclampsia, a condition characterized by seizures and coma.Eclampsia can occur during pregnancy, labor, or postpartum.

A nurse should monitor the client for signs of increased blood pressure, headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, and hyperreflexia, which may indicate an impending convulsion.

Choice A is wrong because hemorrhage is not a common complication of PIH.

Hemorrhage may occur due to other causes such as uterine atony, lacerations, or retained placenta.

Choice B is wrong because urinary retention is not a common complication of PIH.

Urinary retention may occur due to other causes such as anesthesia, trauma, or infection.

Choice D is wrong because thrombophlebitis is not a common complication of PIH.

Thrombophlebitis is a condition where a blood clot forms in a vein and causes inflammation.

It may occur due to other risk factors such as immobility, dehydration, or injury.

A. Take the mother’s vital signs every 15 minutes. B. Send a specimen of the fluid to the laboratory for analysis. C. Have a suction catheter available for use at delivery. D. Prepare a slide of the fluid for fern testing.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is choice C. Have a suction catheter available for use at delivery.This is because meconium-stained amniotic fluid indicates that the fetus has passed meconium (first stool) before birth, which can be a sign of fetal distress or hypoxia.Meconium can block the airways and cause breathing problems for the newborn, so suctioning the mouth and nose (or the trachea if needed) is important to prevent meconium aspiration syndrome.

Choice A is wrong because taking the mother’s vital signs every 15 minutes is not a specific intervention for meconium-stained amniotic fluid.

Vital signs should be monitored regularly during labor regardless of the fluid color.

Choice B is wrong because sending a specimen of the fluid to the laboratory for analysis is not a priority action.The color and consistency of the fluid can be observed by the nurse and documented.

The laboratory analysis will not change the immediate management of the newborn.

Choice D is wrong because preparing a slide of the fluid for fern testing is not relevant for meconium-stained amniotic fluid.

Fern testing is used to confirm the rupture of membranes by detecting a fern-like pattern of amniotic fluid under a microscope.It is not useful for assessing the presence or severity of meconium-stained amniotic fluid.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has gestational diabetes and is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 37 weeks of gestation due to suspected fetal compromise. What is the nurse’s best response to the client’s question as to why the amniocentesis test is being done?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client who had pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is now postpartum. A nurse should closely monitor this client for which complication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient’s amniotic fluid is meconium-stained. Which action should the nurse plan to take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is assigned to care for the postpartum client during her shift. The nurse knows one of the most common risk factors for early (PPH) postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. When providing care, the nurse would plan to:.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has gestational diabetes and is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 37 weeks of gestation due to suspected fetal compromise. What is the nurse’s best response to the client’s question as to why the amniocentesis test is being done?

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