Question 71.
A nurse is caring for a client who has gestational diabetes and is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 37 weeks of gestation due to suspected fetal compromise.
What is the nurse’s best response to the client’s question as to why the amniocentesis test is being done?.
“To determine fetal lung maturity.”.
“To assess the degree of fetal renal function.”.
“To test the amniotic fluid glucose level.”.
“To detect the presence of fetal congenital anomalies.”.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. “To determine fetal lung maturity.” An amniocentesis at 37 weeks of gestation can be done to measure the lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio in the amniotic fluid, which indicates the level of surfactant production and the readiness of the fetal lungs for breathing. A low L/S ratio can indicate fetal compromise due to gestational diabetes.
Choice B is wrong because fetal renal function is not assessed by amniocentesis, but by ultrasound or biophysical profile.
Choice C is wrong because amniotic fluid glucose level is not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being or gestational diabetes control.
Choice D is wrong because congenital anomalies are usually detected earlier in pregnancy by ultrasound, maternal serum screening, or chorionic villus sampling.
Normal ranges for L/S ratio are 2:1 or higher for term fetuses and 1.5:1 or higher for preterm fetuses.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A patient who weighed less than 5 lb (2,268 gm) at birth is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR).This is because low birth weight is a possible indicator of genetic factors or placental insufficiency that can affect fetal growth.
Choice B is wrong because an ectopic pregnancy one year ago does not increase the risk of IUGR.An ectopic pregnancy is when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.It does not affect the placental function or fetal development in a subsequent pregnancy.
Choice C is wrong because a mitral valve prolapse does not increase the risk of IUGR.
A mitral valve prolapse is when the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart does not close properly.It usually does not cause any symptoms or complications during pregnancy, unless it is associated with severe regurgitation or arrhythmias.
Choice D is wrong because the father’s age of 42 years old does not increase the risk of IUGR.The father’s age may affect the risk of chromosomal abnormalities or congenital anomalies in the fetus, but not the fetal growth.
Some of the other risk factors for IUGR include maternal smoking, alcohol, or drug use, medical conditions like anemia or lupus, infections such as rubella or syphilis, carrying twins or multiples, high blood pressure, gestational diabetes, and placenta problems.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Position the patient in a left lateral position.This is because late fetal decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen to the fetus.By positioning the patient on her left side, the blood flow to the placenta and the fetus is improved.
Choice A is wrong because notifying the health care provider is not the first action that the nurse should take.The nurse should first intervene to correct the cause of fetal distress and then inform the provider.
Choice C is wrong because increasing the patient’s intravenous rate may not help with uteroplacental insufficiency.It may also cause fluid overload or pulmonary edema in the patient.
Choice D is wrong because providing the patient with oxygen via a face mask is not the most effective way to increase fetal oxygenation.Oxygen therapy may be used as an adjunct to other interventions, but it is not sufficient by itself.
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