A 23-year-old primigravida who appears to be in her third trimester of pregnancy comes to the labor and delivery unit reporting acute abdominal pain. She has had no prenatal care. Which assessment should the nurse do first?

Obtain a full history.

Examine the cervix for dilation

Examine the cervix for dilation.

Palpate for uterine contraction frequency

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

This is because the first priority for a pregnant woman with acute abdominal pain is to assess the fetal well-being and rule out any obstetric complications such as placental abruption, uterine rupture, or preterm labor. Fetal heart tones can indicate the presence and viability of the fetus and alert the nurse to any signs of fetal distress or hypoxia.

Choice A: Obtain a full history is wrong because it is not the most urgent action.

A full history can provide valuable information about the possible causes of abdominal pain, but it should not delay the assessment of fetal status and maternal vital signs.

Choice B: Examine the cervix for dilation is wrong because it can be harmful in some cases. A digital cervical examination should be avoided until placenta previa is ruled out by ultrasound, as it can cause bleeding and worsen the condition.

Moreover, cervical dilation alone does not indicate the cause or severity of abdominal pain.

Choice D: Palpate for uterine contraction frequency is wrong because it is not the most reliable method to assess labor. Uterine contractions can be measured by external tocodynamometry or internal intrauterine pressure catheter, which can provide more accurate and objective data than manual palpation.

Furthermore, uterine contractions do not necessarily indicate labor, as they can also be caused by other conditions such as dehydration, infection, or irritable uterus.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A transverse lie means that the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, instead of head-down or breech.

This position makes vaginal delivery impossible and increases the risk of umbilical cord prolapse, which can compromise fetal oxygen supply.Therefore, a cesarean delivery is indicated for a fetus in a transverse lie.

Choice A is wrong because having extremely slender hips does not necessarily mean that a woman cannot deliver vaginally.

The size and shape of the pelvis, not the external appearance, determines the adequacy of the birth canal.A trial of labor may be attempted for women with borderline pelvic measurements.

Choice C is wrong because fetal hyperactivity is not a reason for a cesarean delivery.

Fetal movements may vary depending on the time of day, maternal activity, maternal blood sugar level, and other factors.Fetal well-being can be assessed by fetal heart rate monitoring and biophysical profile.

Choice D is wrong because having a posterior cervix does not indicate the need for a cesarean delivery.

A posterior cervix means that the cervix is tilted toward the back of the uterus, which may make cervical dilation slower and more painful.However, with adequate contractions and maternal pushing, the cervix can move to an anterior position and allow vaginal delivery.

A. Urine estriol levels. B. Serum bilirubin levels. C. Urine toxicology studies. D. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This is because urine toxicology studies can detect the presence of cocaine and other drugs in the body of the pregnant woman and her unborn baby.Cocaine use during pregnancy can have serious consequences for both the mother and the baby, such as high blood pressure, premature labor, low birth weight, and developmental problems.

Choice A is wrong because urine estriol levels are used to measure the activity of the placenta and the fetal adrenal glands.They are not related to cocaine use.

Choice B is wrong because serum bilirubin levels are used to assess the liver function and the risk of jaundice in newborns.They are not related to cocaine use.

Choice D is wrong because lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio is used to evaluate the fetal lung maturity and the risk of respiratory distress syndrome.It is not related to cocaine use.

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A 23-year-old primigravida who appears to be in her third trimester of pregnancy comes to the labor and delivery unit reporting acute abdominal pain. She has had no prenatal care. Which assessment should the nurse do first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a patient who is 40 weeks pregnant. Which finding would indicate the need for a cesarean delivery?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

When a client reports using cocaine during her current pregnancy, which laboratory study should a nurse anticipate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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The nurse instructs a class of postpartum women on methods to avoid nipple soreness while breastfeeding. Which comment by a class participant indicates the need for further instruction?

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The physician prescribes prostaglandin (PGE2) gel for a patient being admitted for induction of labor. Which finding would best indicate that the prostaglandin gel is effective?

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