During the postpartal admission assessment, the nurse notes that a patient’s perineum appears edematous and ecchymotic.
Based on this finding, which action should the nurse take?
Observe the patient for vaginal discharge of bright red blood.
Assess the patient’s vaginal tone.
Massage the patient’s perineum.
Apply petrolatum to the patient’s perineum.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D. Apply petrolatum to the patient’s perineum. This is because petrolatum can help soothe and protect the perineal area, which may be swollen, bruised, or have stitches after a vaginal delivery. Applying petrolatum can also prevent the pad from sticking to the wound and causing more pain.
Choice A is wrong because observing the patient for vaginal discharge of bright red blood is not a specific action for perineal care. Bright red blood may indicate postpartum hemorrhage, which requires immediate medical attention.
Choice B is wrong because assessing the patient’s vaginal tone is not a priority action for perineal care. Vaginal tone may be reduced after childbirth due to stretching of the pelvic floor muscles, but this can improve with time and exercises.
Choice C is wrong because massaging the patient’s perineum is not recommended for perineal care. Massaging the perineum may cause more trauma and discomfort to the area, especially if there are stitches or hemorrhoids. Massaging the fundus (the top of the uterus) may be done to help it contract and prevent bleeding, but this is different from massaging the perineum.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
he correct answer is choice B. Sufficient perfusion and circulation of the fetus.This is because the fetal heart rate is within the normal range of 110 to 160 beats per minute, and there is moderate beat-to-beat variability, which indicates a healthy nervous system.
Choice A is wrong because insufficient perfusion of the placenta would cause fetal distress and abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, such as late decelerations or minimal variability.
Choice C is wrong because maternal hypoxia would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, unless it leads to placental insufficiency or uterine hyperstimulation.
Choice D is wrong because fetal hypoxia would cause signs of fetal distress, such as tachycardia, bradycardia, or absent variability.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A nonstress test (NST) is a test in pregnancy that measures fetal heart rate and reaction to movement.Your pregnancy care provider performs a nonstress test to make sure the fetus is healthy and getting enough oxygen.It’s safe and painless, and gets its name because it puts no stress (nonstress) on you or the fetus.
Choice A is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure the mother’s ability to tolerate the discomfort of labor.A stress test is a different procedure that involves stimulating contractions and monitoring how the fetus responds.
Choice B is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure fetal lie, which is the position of the fetus in the uterus.
Fetal lie is usually determined by ultrasound or physical examination.
Choice D is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure maternal readiness for labor.A nonstress test typically happens after 28 weeks of pregnancy, when fetal heart rate starts reacting to movements.
Maternal readiness for labor is assessed by other factors, such as cervical dilation and effacement.
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