A nurse caring for a patient in labor is evaluating the fetal heart monitor.Which finding would indicate fetal distress?
The fetal heart rate decreases after the start of a contraction and returns to the baseline 60 seconds after the end of the contraction.
There is a six to ten beat-to-beat variability in the fetal heart rate.
The fetal heart rate accelerates five to seven beats just prior to the beginning of a contraction.
The fetal heart rate decreases at the start of the contraction and returns to baseline by the end of the contraction.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A and it indicates fetal distress because it is a sign of late deceleration. Late decelerations are due to uteroplacental insufficiency as the result of decreased blood flow and oxygen to the fetus during the uterine contractions. This causes hypoxemia and can lead to fetal acidosis and neurological damage.
Choice B is wrong because it indicates a normal variability in the fetal heart rate, which reflects a healthy autonomic nervous system. A normal fetal heart rate is 120-160 beats per minute.
Choice C is wrong because it indicates an early acceleration in the fetal heart rate, which is a benign finding that may occur with fetal movement or stimulation.
Choice D is wrong because it indicates an early deceleration in the fetal heart rate, which is a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions.
It does not indicate fetal distress.
Normal ranges for fetal heart rate patterns are:
• Baseline: 120-160 beats per minute
• Variability: 6-25 beats per minute
• Accelerations: at least 15 beats per minute above baseline for at least 15 seconds
• Decelerations: none or early (mirror contractions)
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. “Your labor may slow down if you receive an epidural now.” An epidural is a type of regional anesthesia that blocks pain in a specific area of the body.
It can be used to reduce pain during labor and delivery.
However, an epidural can also have some side effects, such as lowering blood pressure, causing fever, and slowing down labor progress.
Therefore, it is usually recommended to wait until the cervix is at least 4 to 5 cm dilated and the contractions are strong and regular before receiving an epidural.
Choice B is wrong because there is no fixed rule about how dilated the cervix needs to be before receiving an epidural.
Some women may receive an epidural earlier or later than others, depending on their pain level, medical history, and preferences.
Choice C is wrong because catheterization is not a prerequisite for receiving an epidural.
Catheterization is the insertion of a tube into the bladder to drain urine.
It may be done after receiving an epidural because the anesthesia can affect the ability to urinate.
However, it is not required before receiving an epidural.
Choice D is wrong because the station of the baby does not determine when a woman can have an epidural.
The station of the baby refers to how far the baby has descended into the pelvis.
It is measured in relation to the ischial spines, which are bony landmarks in the pelvis.
A positive station means that the baby is below the spines, while a negative station means that the baby is above the spines.
Zero station means that the baby is at the level of the spines.
The station of the baby does not affect the administration of an epidural, as long as there are no other complications or contraindications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis.A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections.Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS.The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
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