A nurse is observing the internal fetal monitor readings of a laboring client.The fetal heart rate is between 130 and 138 beats per minute, with moderate beat-to-beat variability.
How should the nurse interpret this finding?
Insufficient perfusion of the placenta.
Sufficient perfusion and circulation of the fetus.
Maternal hypoxia.
Fetal hypoxia.
The Correct Answer is B
he correct answer is choice B. Sufficient perfusion and circulation of the fetus. This is because the fetal heart rate is within the normal range of 110 to 160 beats per minute, and there is moderate beat-to-beat variability, which indicates a healthy nervous system.
Choice A is wrong because insufficient perfusion of the placenta would cause fetal distress and abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, such as late decelerations or minimal variability.
Choice C is wrong because maternal hypoxia would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, unless it leads to placental insufficiency or uterine hyperstimulation.
Choice D is wrong because fetal hypoxia would cause signs of fetal distress, such as tachycardia, bradycardia, or absent variability.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle.It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects.Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.
Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home.It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.
Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.
The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.
Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.
This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.
The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
At 37 weeks, especially in gestational diabetes, fetal lungs may still be immature. Amniocentesis checks lung maturity to ensure the baby can breathe effectively if early delivery is needed due to fetal compromise.
Choice B reason:
Fetal renal function is not typically assessed through amniocentesis at term. Kidney function is monitored via ultrasound, not by analyzing amniotic fluid at 37 weeks.
Choice C reason:
Amniotic fluid glucose levels are not used to manage gestational diabetes. Maternal blood glucose is the standard for monitoring and treatment.
Choice D reason:
Congenital anomalies are usually detected earlier in pregnancy. By 37 weeks, the focus of amniocentesis is on delivery planning, not anomaly detection.
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