A nurse is observing the internal fetal monitor readings of a laboring client.The fetal heart rate is between 130 and 138 beats per minute, with moderate beat-to-beat variability.
How should the nurse interpret this finding?
Insufficient perfusion of the placenta.
Sufficient perfusion and circulation of the fetus.
Maternal hypoxia.
Fetal hypoxia.
The Correct Answer is B
he correct answer is choice B. Sufficient perfusion and circulation of the fetus. This is because the fetal heart rate is within the normal range of 110 to 160 beats per minute, and there is moderate beat-to-beat variability, which indicates a healthy nervous system.
Choice A is wrong because insufficient perfusion of the placenta would cause fetal distress and abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, such as late decelerations or minimal variability.
Choice C is wrong because maternal hypoxia would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, unless it leads to placental insufficiency or uterine hyperstimulation.
Choice D is wrong because fetal hypoxia would cause signs of fetal distress, such as tachycardia, bradycardia, or absent variability.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Test the patient’s vaginal secretions with nitrazine paper.
This is because the patient may be leaking amniotic fluid rather than urine, and nitrazine paper can help differentiate between the two by testing the pH level.Amniotic fluid is alkaline and will turn the paper blue, while urine is acidic and will turn the paper yellow.
Choice A is wrong because checking the patient’s bladder for distention will not help determine if the patient is leaking amniotic fluid or urine.
Choice C is wrong because checking the patient’s urine for glucose content will not help determine if the patient is leaking amniotic fluid or urine.
Glucose content may be elevated in patients with gestational diabetes, but this is not related to the patient’s complaint.
Choice D is wrong because obtaining a specimen of the patient’s vaginal secretions for culture will not help determine if the patient is leaking amniotic fluid or urine.
Culture may be done to check for infections, but this is not the initial action that the nurse should take.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rubella immunization should be given in the early postpartum period.This is because rubella infection during pregnancy can cause serious birth defects or miscarriage, and rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy.Therefore, the best time to vaccinate a woman who is not immune to rubella is after she delivers her baby.
Choice B is wrong because gamma globulin is not effective for preventing rubella infection or congenital rubella syndrome (CRS).Gamma globulin is a preparation of antibodies that can provide temporary protection against some infections, but it does not induce lasting immunity.
Choice C is wrong because gamma globulin should not be given at the next visit for the same reason as choice B.Moreover, gamma globulin can interfere with the response to live vaccines such as rubella vaccine, so it should not be given within 3 months before or after vaccination.
Choice D is wrong because rubella immunization should not be given at the next visit or during pregnancy, as it can pose a risk to the fetus.Rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine that can cross the placenta and infect the fetus.The risk of CRS from vaccination during pregnancy is low, but it cannot be ruled out completely.Therefore, women who receive rubella vaccine should avoid pregnancy for at least 4 weeks after vaccination.
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