A client with a history of diabetes mellitus (T1 D) is 32 weeks pregnant.The client returns to the clinic for a scheduled ultrasound and non-stress test.
What should the nurse expect the non-stress test to determine?
Mother’s ability to tolerate the discomfort of labor.
Fetal lie.
Well-being of the fetus.
Maternal readiness for labor.
The Correct Answer is C
A nonstress test (NST) is a test in pregnancy that measures fetal heart rate and reaction to movement. Your pregnancy care provider performs a nonstress test to make sure the fetus is healthy and getting enough oxygen. It’s safe and painless, and gets its name because it puts no stress (nonstress) on you or the fetus.
Choice A is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure the mother’s ability to tolerate the discomfort of labor. A stress test is a different procedure that involves stimulating contractions and monitoring how the fetus responds.
Choice B is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure fetal lie, which is the position of the fetus in the uterus.
Fetal lie is usually determined by ultrasound or physical examination.
Choice D is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure maternal readiness for labor. A nonstress test typically happens after 28 weeks of pregnancy, when fetal heart rate starts reacting to movements.
Maternal readiness for labor is assessed by other factors, such as cervical dilation and effacement.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A patient who weighed less than 5 lb (2,268 gm) at birth is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR).This is because low birth weight is a possible indicator of genetic factors or placental insufficiency that can affect fetal growth.
Choice B is wrong because an ectopic pregnancy one year ago does not increase the risk of IUGR.An ectopic pregnancy is when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.It does not affect the placental function or fetal development in a subsequent pregnancy.
Choice C is wrong because a mitral valve prolapse does not increase the risk of IUGR.
A mitral valve prolapse is when the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart does not close properly.It usually does not cause any symptoms or complications during pregnancy, unless it is associated with severe regurgitation or arrhythmias.
Choice D is wrong because the father’s age of 42 years old does not increase the risk of IUGR.The father’s age may affect the risk of chromosomal abnormalities or congenital anomalies in the fetus, but not the fetal growth.
Some of the other risk factors for IUGR include maternal smoking, alcohol, or drug use, medical conditions like anemia or lupus, infections such as rubella or syphilis, carrying twins or multiples, high blood pressure, gestational diabetes, and placenta problems.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. The increase in maternal blood volume is greater than the increase in maternal red blood cells.
This means that the concentration of hemoglobin and hematocrit in the blood is diluted by the extra fluid.
This is a normal physiological adaptation to pregnancy and does not indicate iron deficiency anemia.
Choice A is wrong because placental hormones do not chelate maternal iron.
Chelation is a process of binding metal ions to organic molecules, which is not relevant to this question.
Choice B is wrong because fetal demand for iron is not greater than maternal intake.
The mother can meet the iron needs of the fetus by increasing her dietary intake and taking iron supplements.
Choice C is wrong because maternal intestinal absorption of iron is not decreased during pregnancy.
In fact, it may be increased due to higher levels of estrogen and progesterone.
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