A nurse is caring for a newborn who is placed in a neutral thermal environment.What is the desired outcome of this measure?
To minimize the patient’s oxygen needs.
To facilitate the conversion of glucose to lactic acid.
To decrease the absorption of surfactant from the alveoli.
To increase the patient’s ability to metabolize brown fat stores.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A: To minimize the patient’s oxygen needs.
A neutral thermal environment is an environment in which a neonate maintains a normal body temperature while minimizing energy expenditure and oxygen consumption. This is important for the wellbeing of neonates, especially those who are preterm or have respiratory insufficiency.
Choice B is wrong because the conversion of glucose to lactic acid is not a desired outcome of a neutral thermal environment. This conversion occurs when there is inadequate oxygen supply to the tissues, resulting in anaerobic metabolism and metabolic acidosis.
Choice C is wrong because the absorption of surfactant from the alveoli is not affected by a neutral thermal environment.
Surfactant is a substance that reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. It is produced by type II alveolar cells and secreted into the alveoli.
Choice D is wrong because the metabolism of brown fat stores is not a desired outcome of a neutral thermal environment.
Brown fat is a specialized tissue that generates heat by nonshivering thermogenesis in response to cold stress.
It is located in the nape of the neck, between the scapulae, and around the kidneys and adrenals. It increases the metabolic rate and oxygen consumption of neonates.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Position the patient in a left lateral position.This is because late fetal decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen to the fetus.By positioning the patient on her left side, the blood flow to the placenta and the fetus is improved.
Choice A is wrong because notifying the health care provider is not the first action that the nurse should take.The nurse should first intervene to correct the cause of fetal distress and then inform the provider.
Choice C is wrong because increasing the patient’s intravenous rate may not help with uteroplacental insufficiency.It may also cause fluid overload or pulmonary edema in the patient.
Choice D is wrong because providing the patient with oxygen via a face mask is not the most effective way to increase fetal oxygenation.Oxygen therapy may be used as an adjunct to other interventions, but it is not sufficient by itself.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis.A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections.Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS.The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
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