The nurse is assigned to care for the postpartum client during her shift.
The nurse knows one of the most common risk factors for early (PPH) postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. When providing care, the nurse would plan to:.

Have the client void frequently.

Massage the uterus.

Have the client in a side-lying position for comfort.

Keep the patient on strict bed rest for 24 hours to avoid stress on the uterus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Massaging the uterus helps it contract and prevent excessive bleeding after delivery. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus does not contract enough to clamp the blood vessels that supply the placenta, leading to postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine massage is one of the interventions to treat uterine atony and restore uterine tone.

Choice A is wrong because having the client void frequently does not directly affect the uterine contraction. However, a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction and cause displacement of the uterus, so it is important to monitor the bladder status and empty it as needed.

Choice C is wrong because having the client in a side-lying position for comfort does not help with uterine contraction. However, this position may be beneficial for other reasons, such as reducing edema and pain in the perineal area.

Choice D is wrong because keeping the patient on strict bed rest for 24 hours to avoid stress on the uterus does not help with uterine contraction. In fact, early ambulation after delivery can help prevent thromboembolic complications and promote recovery.

Normal ranges for postpartum blood loss are less than 500 mL for vaginal delivery and less than 1000 mL for cesarean delivery. Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss greater than or equal to 1000 mL or blood loss accompanied by signs or symptoms of hypovolemia within 24 hours after birth.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions.The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.

A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.

Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction.Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.

Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started.Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.

Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do.Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.

A. Rubella immunization should be given in the early postpartum period. B. Gamma globulin should be given when the client is admitted in labor. C. Gamma globulin should be given at next visit. D. Rubella immunization should be given at next visit.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Rubella immunization should be given in the early postpartum period.This is because rubella infection during pregnancy can cause serious birth defects or miscarriage, and rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy.Therefore, the best time to vaccinate a woman who is not immune to rubella is after she delivers her baby.

Choice B is wrong because gamma globulin is not effective for preventing rubella infection or congenital rubella syndrome (CRS).Gamma globulin is a preparation of antibodies that can provide temporary protection against some infections, but it does not induce lasting immunity.

Choice C is wrong because gamma globulin should not be given at the next visit for the same reason as choice B.Moreover, gamma globulin can interfere with the response to live vaccines such as rubella vaccine, so it should not be given within 3 months before or after vaccination.

Choice D is wrong because rubella immunization should not be given at the next visit or during pregnancy, as it can pose a risk to the fetus.Rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine that can cross the placenta and infect the fetus.The risk of CRS from vaccination during pregnancy is low, but it cannot be ruled out completely.Therefore, women who receive rubella vaccine should avoid pregnancy for at least 4 weeks after vaccination.

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The nurse is assigned to care for the postpartum client during her shift. The nurse knows one of the most common risk factors for early (PPH) postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. When providing care, the nurse would plan to:.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The physician prescribes prostaglandin (PGE2) gel for a patient being admitted for induction of labor. Which finding would best indicate that the prostaglandin gel is effective?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A 14-year-old client who is pregnant has a low result from a rubella serology test.Which notation should be made on this client’s care plan?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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The nurse is assigned to care for the postpartum client during her shift.
The nurse knows one of the most common risk factors for early (PPH) postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. When providing care, the nurse would plan to:.