The nurse is assigned to care for the postpartum client during her shift.
The nurse knows one of the most common risk factors for early (PPH) postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. When providing care, the nurse would plan to:.

Have the client void frequently.

Massage the uterus.

Have the client in a side-lying position for comfort.

Keep the patient on strict bed rest for 24 hours to avoid stress on the uterus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Massaging the uterus helps it contract and prevent excessive bleeding after delivery. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus does not contract enough to clamp the blood vessels that supply the placenta, leading to postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine massage is one of the interventions to treat uterine atony and restore uterine tone.

Choice A is wrong because having the client void frequently does not directly affect the uterine contraction. However, a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction and cause displacement of the uterus, so it is important to monitor the bladder status and empty it as needed.

Choice C is wrong because having the client in a side-lying position for comfort does not help with uterine contraction. However, this position may be beneficial for other reasons, such as reducing edema and pain in the perineal area.

Choice D is wrong because keeping the patient on strict bed rest for 24 hours to avoid stress on the uterus does not help with uterine contraction. In fact, early ambulation after delivery can help prevent thromboembolic complications and promote recovery.

Normal ranges for postpartum blood loss are less than 500 mL for vaginal delivery and less than 1000 mL for cesarean delivery. Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss greater than or equal to 1000 mL or blood loss accompanied by signs or symptoms of hypovolemia within 24 hours after birth.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A: “The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time.” This is because the client is experiencing lochia serosa, which is a brownish discharge that occurs from about day 4 to day 10 postpartum.

Lochia serosa is composed of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.

It indicates that the placental site is healing and the uterus is involuting.

Choice B is wrong because fever is a sign of infection, not normal lochia.

Choice C is wrong because ovulation usually does not resume until 6 weeks postpartum for nonbreastfeeding women and later for breastfeeding women.

Choice D is wrong because iron supplements do not affect lochia color or amount.

A. To decrease her blood pressure. B. To decrease her tidal volume. C. To prevent her from becoming dehydrated. D. To prevent her from having convulsions.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D: To prevent her from having convulsions.Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy.Magnesium sulfate can lower the cerebral perfusion pressure and prevent convulsions.However, magnesium sulfate does not affect the neonatal outcomes and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression.

Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease blood pressure.It is used along with medications that help reduce blood pressure.

Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease tidal volume.It can cause respiratory depression if the serum level is too high.

Choice C is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not prevent dehydration.It can cause fluid retention and pulmonary edema if given in excess.

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The nurse is assigned to care for the postpartum client during her shift. The nurse knows one of the most common risk factors for early (PPH) postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. When providing care, the nurse would plan to:.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client who is two weeks postpartum calls the office and tells a nurse, "l am having a small amount of brownish discharge from my vagina." Which response is appropriate for the nurse to make?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A patient diagnosed with preeclampsia is admitted to the hospital and prescribed magnesium sulfate therapy. What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate to this patient?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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The nurse at the antepartal clinic reviews four patients’ charts. Which patient is at increased risk for an ectopic pregnancy?

The nurse is assigned to care for the postpartum client during her shift.
The nurse knows one of the most common risk factors for early (PPH) postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. When providing care, the nurse would plan to:.