A 14-year-old client who is pregnant has a low result from a rubella serology test.Which notation should be made on this client’s care plan?

Rubella immunization should be given in the early postpartum period.

Gamma globulin should be given when the client is admitted in labor.

Gamma globulin should be given at next visit.

Rubella immunization should be given at next visit.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Rubella immunization should be given in the early postpartum period. This is because rubella infection during pregnancy can cause serious birth defects or miscarriage, and rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy. Therefore, the best time to vaccinate a woman who is not immune to rubella is after she delivers her baby.

Choice B is wrong because gamma globulin is not effective for preventing rubella infection or congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). Gamma globulin is a preparation of antibodies that can provide temporary protection against some infections, but it does not induce lasting immunity.

Choice C is wrong because gamma globulin should not be given at the next visit for the same reason as choice B. Moreover, gamma globulin can interfere with the response to live vaccines such as rubella vaccine, so it should not be given within 3 months before or after vaccination.

Choice D is wrong because rubella immunization should not be given at the next visit or during pregnancy, as it can pose a risk to the fetus. Rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine that can cross the placenta and infect the fetus. The risk of CRS from vaccination during pregnancy is low, but it cannot be ruled out completely. Therefore, women who receive rubella vaccine should avoid pregnancy for at least 4 weeks after vaccination.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D. Cesarean delivery.A pregnant patient with genital herpes is at higher risk of transmitting the infection to the baby during vaginal delivery, especially if there is an active outbreak near the time of birth.This can cause serious complications for the baby, such as brain damage, eye problems, or even death.Therefore, a cesarean delivery is recommended to avoid contact between the baby and the genital lesions.

Choice A is wrong because forceps-assisted second stage of labor is not a complication of genital herpes.

It is a method of assisted delivery that may be used for various reasons, such as fetal distress, maternal exhaustion, or abnormal presentation.

Choice B is wrong because precipitous delivery, which means a very fast labor and delivery, is not a complication of genital herpes.

It may be caused by factors such as multiparity, strong contractions, or previous rapid deliveries.

Choice C is wrong because prolonged first phase of labor, which means a slow dilation of the cervix, is not a complication of genital herpes.

It may be caused by factors such as ineffective contractions, large fetal size, or malposition.

A. The patient’s cervix is dilated. B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced. C. The patient’s cervix is softened. D. The patient’s uterus is softened.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions.The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.

A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.

Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction.Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.

Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started.Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.

Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do.Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.

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A 14-year-old client who is pregnant has a low result from a rubella serology test.Which notation should be made on this client’s care plan?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

When a pregnant patient has genital herpes, for which complication is the patient at higher risk than the general population?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The physician prescribes prostaglandin (PGE2) gel for a patient being admitted for induction of labor. Which finding would best indicate that the prostaglandin gel is effective?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient who is 34 weeks pregnant attends the antepartal clinic and is diagnosed with mild pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). The decision is made to treat the patient at home. Which instruction would be most appropriate to give to the patient?

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a pregnant patient.Which result will require further assessment?

A 14-year-old client who is pregnant has a low result from a rubella serology test.Which notation should be made on this client’s care plan?

A nurse is caring for a patient being evaluated for sexually transmitted infection (STI).A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) indicates that a patient is probably not infected with which STI?

A nurse is caring for a patient who is 40 weeks pregnant. Which finding would indicate the need for a cesarean delivery?

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A patient diagnosed with preeclampsia is admitted to the hospital and prescribed magnesium sulfate therapy. What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate to this patient?