A 14-year-old client who is pregnant has a low result from a rubella serology test.Which notation should be made on this client’s care plan?

Rubella immunization should be given in the early postpartum period.

Gamma globulin should be given when the client is admitted in labor.

Gamma globulin should be given at next visit.

Rubella immunization should be given at next visit.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Rubella immunization should be given in the early postpartum period. This is because rubella infection during pregnancy can cause serious birth defects or miscarriage, and rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy. Therefore, the best time to vaccinate a woman who is not immune to rubella is after she delivers her baby.

Choice B is wrong because gamma globulin is not effective for preventing rubella infection or congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). Gamma globulin is a preparation of antibodies that can provide temporary protection against some infections, but it does not induce lasting immunity.

Choice C is wrong because gamma globulin should not be given at the next visit for the same reason as choice B. Moreover, gamma globulin can interfere with the response to live vaccines such as rubella vaccine, so it should not be given within 3 months before or after vaccination.

Choice D is wrong because rubella immunization should not be given at the next visit or during pregnancy, as it can pose a risk to the fetus. Rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine that can cross the placenta and infect the fetus. The risk of CRS from vaccination during pregnancy is low, but it cannot be ruled out completely. Therefore, women who receive rubella vaccine should avoid pregnancy for at least 4 weeks after vaccination.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis.A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.

Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.

Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.

Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.

The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections.Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS.The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.

A. What is the nurse’s best response to the client’s question as to why the amniocentesis test is being done?. B. “To determine fetal lung maturity.”. C. “To assess the degree of fetal renal function.”. D. “To test the amniotic fluid glucose level.”. E. “To detect the presence of fetal congenital anomalies.”.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A.“To determine fetal lung maturity.” An amniocentesis at 37 weeks of gestation can be done to measure the lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio in the amniotic fluid, which indicates the level of surfactant production and the readiness of the fetal lungs for breathing.A low L/S ratio can indicate fetal compromise due to gestational diabetes.

Choice B is wrong because fetal renal function is not assessed by amniocentesis, but by ultrasound or biophysical profile.

Choice C is wrong because amniotic fluid glucose level is not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being or gestational diabetes control.

Choice D is wrong because congenital anomalies are usually detected earlier in pregnancy by ultrasound, maternal serum screening, or chorionic villus sampling.

Normal ranges for L/S ratio are 2:1 or higher for term fetuses and 1.5:1 or higher for preterm fetuses.

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A 14-year-old client who is pregnant has a low result from a rubella serology test.Which notation should be made on this client’s care plan?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a patient being evaluated for sexually transmitted infection (STI).A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) indicates that a patient is probably not infected with which STI?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Question 71. A nurse is caring for a client who has gestational diabetes and is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 37 weeks of gestation due to suspected fetal compromise.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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