A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a pregnant patient.Which result will require further assessment?
Rubella titer 1:33.
Serologic test for syphilis (STS) - non-reactive.
Blood type A-negative.
Hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL.
The Correct Answer is A
A rubella titer of 1:33 indicates a low level of immunity to rubella, which can be dangerous for a pregnant woman and her fetus.
Rubella is a viral infection that can cause birth defects or miscarriage if contracted during pregnancy. A rubella titer of 1:10 or higher is considered protective.
Choice B is wrong because a non-reactive serologic test for syphilis (STS) means that the patient does not have syphilis, which is a bacterial infection that can also harm the fetus if untreated.
Choice C is wrong because blood type A-negative does not require further assessment unless the patient has antibodies to the Rh factor, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn if the fetus is Rh-positive.
This can be prevented by giving the patient Rh immunoglobulin injections during pregnancy and after delivery.
Choice D is wrong because hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman, which is 11 to 14 gm/dL.
Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen.
A low hemoglobin level can indicate anemia, which can affect the oxygen delivery to the fetus and increase the risk of preterm labor or low birth weight.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. It will be necessary for a Cesarean section when labor begins.This is because a pregnant person with herpes simplex virus (HSV) type II can pass the infection to the baby during childbirth, which can be life-threatening.A Cesarean section can lower the risk of infection by avoiding contact with the virus in the genital area.
Choice A is wrong because herpes can recur after delivery, especially if the person has a history of genital herpes before pregnancy.Choice B is wrong because weekly cultures of the herpes site are not recommended during pregnancy, as they are not reliable indicators of viral shedding or risk of transmission.Choice C is wrong because it is possible to have more than one herpes outbreak during pregnancy, especially if the person has a primary or nonprimary first-episode infection in the third trimester.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) can cause eclampsia, a condition characterized by seizures and coma.Eclampsia can occur during pregnancy, labor, or postpartum.
A nurse should monitor the client for signs of increased blood pressure, headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, and hyperreflexia, which may indicate an impending convulsion.
Choice A is wrong because hemorrhage is not a common complication of PIH.
Hemorrhage may occur due to other causes such as uterine atony, lacerations, or retained placenta.
Choice B is wrong because urinary retention is not a common complication of PIH.
Urinary retention may occur due to other causes such as anesthesia, trauma, or infection.
Choice D is wrong because thrombophlebitis is not a common complication of PIH.
Thrombophlebitis is a condition where a blood clot forms in a vein and causes inflammation.
It may occur due to other risk factors such as immobility, dehydration, or injury.
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