A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a pregnant patient.Which result will require further assessment?
Rubella titer 1:33.
Serologic test for syphilis (STS) - non-reactive.
Blood type A-negative.
Hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL.
The Correct Answer is A
A rubella titer of 1:33 indicates a low level of immunity to rubella, which can be dangerous for a pregnant woman and her fetus.
Rubella is a viral infection that can cause birth defects or miscarriage if contracted during pregnancy. A rubella titer of 1:10 or higher is considered protective.
Choice B is wrong because a non-reactive serologic test for syphilis (STS) means that the patient does not have syphilis, which is a bacterial infection that can also harm the fetus if untreated.
Choice C is wrong because blood type A-negative does not require further assessment unless the patient has antibodies to the Rh factor, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn if the fetus is Rh-positive.
This can be prevented by giving the patient Rh immunoglobulin injections during pregnancy and after delivery.
Choice D is wrong because hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman, which is 11 to 14 gm/dL.
Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen.
A low hemoglobin level can indicate anemia, which can affect the oxygen delivery to the fetus and increase the risk of preterm labor or low birth weight.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A patient who weighed less than 5 lb (2,268 gm) at birth is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR).This is because low birth weight is a possible indicator of genetic factors or placental insufficiency that can affect fetal growth.
Choice B is wrong because an ectopic pregnancy one year ago does not increase the risk of IUGR.An ectopic pregnancy is when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.It does not affect the placental function or fetal development in a subsequent pregnancy.
Choice C is wrong because a mitral valve prolapse does not increase the risk of IUGR.
A mitral valve prolapse is when the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart does not close properly.It usually does not cause any symptoms or complications during pregnancy, unless it is associated with severe regurgitation or arrhythmias.
Choice D is wrong because the father’s age of 42 years old does not increase the risk of IUGR.The father’s age may affect the risk of chromosomal abnormalities or congenital anomalies in the fetus, but not the fetal growth.
Some of the other risk factors for IUGR include maternal smoking, alcohol, or drug use, medical conditions like anemia or lupus, infections such as rubella or syphilis, carrying twins or multiples, high blood pressure, gestational diabetes, and placenta problems.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: To prevent her from having convulsions.Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy.Magnesium sulfate can lower the cerebral perfusion pressure and prevent convulsions.However, magnesium sulfate does not affect the neonatal outcomes and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease blood pressure.It is used along with medications that help reduce blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease tidal volume.It can cause respiratory depression if the serum level is too high.
Choice C is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not prevent dehydration.It can cause fluid retention and pulmonary edema if given in excess.
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