A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a pregnant patient.Which result will require further assessment?
Rubella titer 1:33.
Serologic test for syphilis (STS) - non-reactive.
Blood type A-negative.
Hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL.
The Correct Answer is A
A rubella titer of 1:33 indicates a low level of immunity to rubella, which can be dangerous for a pregnant woman and her fetus.
Rubella is a viral infection that can cause birth defects or miscarriage if contracted during pregnancy. A rubella titer of 1:10 or higher is considered protective.
Choice B is wrong because a non-reactive serologic test for syphilis (STS) means that the patient does not have syphilis, which is a bacterial infection that can also harm the fetus if untreated.
Choice C is wrong because blood type A-negative does not require further assessment unless the patient has antibodies to the Rh factor, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn if the fetus is Rh-positive.
This can be prevented by giving the patient Rh immunoglobulin injections during pregnancy and after delivery.
Choice D is wrong because hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman, which is 11 to 14 gm/dL.
Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen.
A low hemoglobin level can indicate anemia, which can affect the oxygen delivery to the fetus and increase the risk of preterm labor or low birth weight.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
he correct answer is choice B. Sufficient perfusion and circulation of the fetus.This is because the fetal heart rate is within the normal range of 110 to 160 beats per minute, and there is moderate beat-to-beat variability, which indicates a healthy nervous system.
Choice A is wrong because insufficient perfusion of the placenta would cause fetal distress and abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, such as late decelerations or minimal variability.
Choice C is wrong because maternal hypoxia would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, unless it leads to placental insufficiency or uterine hyperstimulation.
Choice D is wrong because fetal hypoxia would cause signs of fetal distress, such as tachycardia, bradycardia, or absent variability.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery.Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.
Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves.It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.
Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart.It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.
Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus.Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.
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