A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a pregnant patient.Which result will require further assessment?
Rubella titer 1:33.
Serologic test for syphilis (STS) - non-reactive.
Blood type A-negative.
Hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL.
The Correct Answer is A
A rubella titer of 1:33 indicates a low level of immunity to rubella, which can be dangerous for a pregnant woman and her fetus.
Rubella is a viral infection that can cause birth defects or miscarriage if contracted during pregnancy. A rubella titer of 1:10 or higher is considered protective.
Choice B is wrong because a non-reactive serologic test for syphilis (STS) means that the patient does not have syphilis, which is a bacterial infection that can also harm the fetus if untreated.
Choice C is wrong because blood type A-negative does not require further assessment unless the patient has antibodies to the Rh factor, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn if the fetus is Rh-positive.
This can be prevented by giving the patient Rh immunoglobulin injections during pregnancy and after delivery.
Choice D is wrong because hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman, which is 11 to 14 gm/dL.
Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen.
A low hemoglobin level can indicate anemia, which can affect the oxygen delivery to the fetus and increase the risk of preterm labor or low birth weight.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. The increase in maternal blood volume is greater than the increase in maternal red blood cells.
This means that the concentration of hemoglobin and hematocrit in the blood is diluted by the extra fluid.
This is a normal physiological adaptation to pregnancy and does not indicate iron deficiency anemia.
Choice A is wrong because placental hormones do not chelate maternal iron.
Chelation is a process of binding metal ions to organic molecules, which is not relevant to this question.
Choice B is wrong because fetal demand for iron is not greater than maternal intake.
The mother can meet the iron needs of the fetus by increasing her dietary intake and taking iron supplements.
Choice C is wrong because maternal intestinal absorption of iron is not decreased during pregnancy.
In fact, it may be increased due to higher levels of estrogen and progesterone.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C.Choice C is wrong because having more than three full-term pregnancies does not affect the suitability of using a copper IUD as a birth control method.Copper IUDs are long-term, reversible contraceptives that can be used by premenopausal women of all ages, including those who have never been pregnant or who have had multiple pregnancies.
Choice A is correct because a copper IUD can be inserted anytime during a normal menstrual cycle, or up to eight weeks after childbirth.
Choice B is correct because a copper IUD may cause heavier and longer periods, as well as more cramping.
Choice D is correct because a copper IUD works by creating an inflammatory response in the uterus that prevents sperm from reaching the egg and fertilizing it, and also prevents a fertilized egg from implanting in the uterine wall.
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