A drug that is a fifth-generation cephalosporin which is the first in its class effective against MRSA is:
Ceftaroline (Teflaro)
Cefepime (Maxipime)
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
Cephalexin (Keflex)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Ceftaroline (Teflaro) is a fifth-generation cephalosporin antibiotic that is effective against MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus). It's the first cephalosporin in its class with this capability, making it a valuable choice in treating MRSA infections.
B. Cefepime (Maxipime) is a fourth-generation cephalosporin that does not have specific activity against MRSA.
C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is a third-generation cephalosporin, effective against a wide range of bacteria, but not specifically targeted at MRSA.
D. Cephalexin (Keflex) is a first-generation cephalosporin, primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria, but not effective against MRSA.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "The antibiotic I have been taking doesn't work as well as it used to."
This statement shows awareness of decreased effectiveness, which can occur due to drug resistance. Bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics, leading to reduced efficacy of the medication over time.
B. "The bacteria in my body have become resilient."
This statement correctly attributes resistance to the bacteria. Resilience in this context means that bacteria have developed mechanisms to survive the effects of antibiotics, making the treatment less effective.
C. "Over time, an organism that had once been highly sensitive to an antibiotic may become less susceptible, or it may lose drug sensitivity entirely."
This statement accurately describes the concept of drug resistance. Bacteria can lose sensitivity to antibiotics, rendering the drugs ineffective against them.
D. "My body has become resistant to the antibiotic."
This statement is incorrect. It's the bacteria that develop resistance, not the patient's body. Patients don't become resistant to antibiotics; instead, bacteria evolve and adapt, making the drugs less effective against them.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. 8:00 AM: This time is too early to draw a trough level for a medication administered at 10:00 AM. The trough level should be drawn just before the next dose is given to get the lowest concentration in the bloodstream.
B. 11:00 AM: This time is after the scheduled dose of vancomycin at 10:00 AM. Waiting until 11:00 AM would not provide an accurate trough level because the patient has already received the medication.
C. 9:00 AM: This is the correct time to obtain the patient's blood sample. It is one hour before the scheduled dose of vancomycin at 10:00 AM. Drawing the trough level at this time ensures it reflects the lowest concentration of the drug in the bloodstream.
D. 12:00 noon: This time is after the scheduled dose of vancomycin at 10:00 AM. Waiting until noon would not provide an accurate trough level because the patient has already received the medication.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today