A patient has been ordered azithromycin [Zithromax] and asks the nurse why the medication does not have to be taken as often as other antibiotics that have previously been ordered. What is the nurse's best response?
"This drug has a longer duration of action than some of the other antibiotics."
"This is a much more effective drug than what you received previously."
"I'll call the pharmacy and ask about the chemical makeup of the drug."
"You'll need to ask your healthcare provider questions like that."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "This drug has a longer duration of action than some of the other antibiotics."
Explanation: Azithromycin, a macrolide antibiotic, has a longer half-life in the body compared to some other antibiotics. Half-life refers to the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. A longer half-life means the drug remains effective for a longer duration, allowing for less frequent dosing.
B. "This is a much more effective drug than what you received previously."
Explanation: While azithromycin is effective against a wide range of bacterial infections, it's not accurate to say it's universally more effective than other antibiotics. The choice of antibiotic depends on the specific type of infection and the susceptibility of the bacteria causing it. Effectiveness varies based on the context of use.
C. "I'll call the pharmacy and ask about the chemical makeup of the drug."
Explanation: While understanding the chemical makeup of drugs is important for healthcare professionals, it might not directly answer the patient's question about the dosing frequency. Explaining the drug's pharmacological properties, such as its duration of action, would provide a more relevant and understandable response to the patient's query.
D. "You'll need to ask your healthcare provider questions like that."
Explanation: This response does not provide the patient with the information they seek. Nurses are valuable resources for medication-related questions and should strive to provide accurate and understandable explanations to patients.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Vancomycin is often administered over at least 60 minutes to reduce the risk of infusion-related reactions, such as "Red Man Syndrome," which is characterized by flushing, rash, and itching. This reaction is caused by the rapid infusion of vancomycin, leading to the release of histamine.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ceftaroline (Teflaro) is a fifth-generation cephalosporin antibiotic that is effective against MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus). It's the first cephalosporin in its class with this capability, making it a valuable choice in treating MRSA infections.
B. Cefepime (Maxipime) is a fourth-generation cephalosporin that does not have specific activity against MRSA.
C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is a third-generation cephalosporin, effective against a wide range of bacteria, but not specifically targeted at MRSA.
D. Cephalexin (Keflex) is a first-generation cephalosporin, primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria, but not effective against MRSA.
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