"My doctor said I have an autoimmune disease. What does that mean?" asks a client. How should the nurse respond?
"You have developed urticaria in response to something in your environment."
"Your immune system is creating antibodies that are destroying your own cells."
"Your immune system is not able to create antibodies to help you fight infection."
"You have developed an infection that is destroying your immune cells."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "You have developed urticaria in response to something in your environment."
This statement is incorrect. Urticaria refers to hives, a skin rash usually caused by an allergic reaction, infection, or stress. It's not necessarily indicative of an autoimmune disease.
B. "Your immune system is creating antibodies that are destroying your own cells."
This statement is correct. Autoimmune diseases involve the immune system mistakenly attacking the body's own cells and tissues, leading to various health issues.
C. "Your immune system is not able to create antibodies to help you fight infection."
This statement is incorrect. In autoimmune diseases, the immune system is overactive, producing antibodies that target the body's own cells, not that it can't create antibodies.
D. "You have developed an infection that is destroying your immune cells."
This statement is incorrect. Infections don't typically destroy immune cells; instead, infections often stimulate the immune system to respond and fight against invading pathogens.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ceftaroline (Teflaro) is a fifth-generation cephalosporin antibiotic that is effective against MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus). It's the first cephalosporin in its class with this capability, making it a valuable choice in treating MRSA infections.
B. Cefepime (Maxipime) is a fourth-generation cephalosporin that does not have specific activity against MRSA.
C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is a third-generation cephalosporin, effective against a wide range of bacteria, but not specifically targeted at MRSA.
D. Cephalexin (Keflex) is a first-generation cephalosporin, primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria, but not effective against MRSA.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Allergic reaction: An allergic reaction can manifest in various ways, including rash, itching, and difficulty breathing. However, the specific symptoms described, along with the context of vancomycin administration, point to red man syndrome in this case.
Rhabdomyolysis: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition where damaged muscle tissue breaks down and releases a protein called myoglobin into the bloodstream. This can cause kidney damage, but the symptoms described do not align with rhabdomyolysis.
Stevens-Johnson syndrome: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can cause skin and mucous membranes to blister, peel, and can be life-threatening. While it can present with rash and other skin symptoms, the symptoms mentioned in the scenario are more characteristic of red man syndrome.
Red man syndrome: As mentioned earlier, red man syndrome is an allergic reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, pruritus, and urticaria (hives), along with rapid heart rate and low blood pressure. It is specific to vancomycin and can be prevented or minimized by slowing down the infusion rate and administering antihistamines.
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