Your patient is on long-term prednisone therapy. This patient should have frequent follow-up office visits to assess for which of the following?
Dermatitis and headaches
Heart failure and headaches
Hyperglycemia and osteoporosis
Weight loss and hypoglycemia
The Correct Answer is C
A. Dermatitis and headaches: Prednisone use can sometimes cause skin issues, but dermatitis is not a common side effect. Headaches can also occur, but they are not specific to long-term prednisone therapy.
B. Heart failure and headaches: Prednisone does not directly cause heart failure. Headaches can occur but are not specific indicators of prednisone side effects.
C. Hyperglycemia and osteoporosis: Prednisone can lead to elevated blood glucose levels (hyperglycemia) and increased bone loss (osteoporosis) when used long-term. Regular monitoring is essential to manage these potential side effects.
D. Weight loss and hypoglycemia: Prednisone can cause weight gain rather than weight loss. Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) is not a common side effect of prednisone; it typically causes hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) instead.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer."
This statement is incorrect. The classification of cephalosporins into generations is based on their antimicrobial spectrum and activity against specific bacteria, not their cost.
B. "Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."
This statement is not accurate. In fact, later generations of cephalosporins have increased resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases, which are enzymes produced by bacteria that can break down certain antibiotics.
C. "Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each new generation."
This statement is correct. Cephalosporins are grouped into generations (first to fifth) based on their antibacterial spectrum. As the generations progress, there is an increase in activity against gram-negative bacteria, among other improvements in their spectrum.
D. "First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid."
This statement is generally true. First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid, making them useful for treating certain central nervous system infections.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "This drug has a longer duration of action than some of the other antibiotics."
Explanation: Azithromycin, a macrolide antibiotic, has a longer half-life in the body compared to some other antibiotics. Half-life refers to the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. A longer half-life means the drug remains effective for a longer duration, allowing for less frequent dosing.
B. "This is a much more effective drug than what you received previously."
Explanation: While azithromycin is effective against a wide range of bacterial infections, it's not accurate to say it's universally more effective than other antibiotics. The choice of antibiotic depends on the specific type of infection and the susceptibility of the bacteria causing it. Effectiveness varies based on the context of use.
C. "I'll call the pharmacy and ask about the chemical makeup of the drug."
Explanation: While understanding the chemical makeup of drugs is important for healthcare professionals, it might not directly answer the patient's question about the dosing frequency. Explaining the drug's pharmacological properties, such as its duration of action, would provide a more relevant and understandable response to the patient's query.
D. "You'll need to ask your healthcare provider questions like that."
Explanation: This response does not provide the patient with the information they seek. Nurses are valuable resources for medication-related questions and should strive to provide accurate and understandable explanations to patients.
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