Your patient is on long-term prednisone therapy. This patient should have frequent follow-up office visits to assess for which of the following?
Dermatitis and headaches
Heart failure and headaches
Hyperglycemia and osteoporosis
Weight loss and hypoglycemia
The Correct Answer is C
A. Dermatitis and headaches: Prednisone use can sometimes cause skin issues, but dermatitis is not a common side effect. Headaches can also occur, but they are not specific to long-term prednisone therapy.
B. Heart failure and headaches: Prednisone does not directly cause heart failure. Headaches can occur but are not specific indicators of prednisone side effects.
C. Hyperglycemia and osteoporosis: Prednisone can lead to elevated blood glucose levels (hyperglycemia) and increased bone loss (osteoporosis) when used long-term. Regular monitoring is essential to manage these potential side effects.
D. Weight loss and hypoglycemia: Prednisone can cause weight gain rather than weight loss. Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) is not a common side effect of prednisone; it typically causes hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) instead.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer."
This statement is incorrect. The classification of cephalosporins into generations is based on their antimicrobial spectrum and activity against specific bacteria, not their cost.
B. "Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."
This statement is not accurate. In fact, later generations of cephalosporins have increased resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases, which are enzymes produced by bacteria that can break down certain antibiotics.
C. "Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each new generation."
This statement is correct. Cephalosporins are grouped into generations (first to fifth) based on their antibacterial spectrum. As the generations progress, there is an increase in activity against gram-negative bacteria, among other improvements in their spectrum.
D. "First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid."
This statement is generally true. First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid, making them useful for treating certain central nervous system infections.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction: This type of hypersensitivity reaction, also known as Type IV hypersensitivity, involves a delayed response by the immune system and is mediated by T cells. It does not necessarily involve a failure of self-tolerance.
B. Antibody-mediated reaction: This type of hypersensitivity reaction, also known as Type II hypersensitivity, involves antibodies targeting specific antigens on cell surfaces, leading to cell destruction. It doesn't directly indicate a failure of self-tolerance but rather an immune response against specific cells or tissues.
C. Autoimmune reaction: In autoimmune reactions, the immune system fails to recognize certain body tissues or substances as "self," leading to an immune response against the body's own cells or tissues. This results from a breakdown in self-tolerance, where the immune system mistakenly targets its own body.
D. Immediate hypersensitivity reaction: This type of hypersensitivity reaction, also known as Type I hypersensitivity, involves an immediate response by the immune system to an allergen. It includes conditions like allergies and anaphylaxis, where the immune system reacts strongly to substances that are normally harmless. This response does not necessarily indicate a failure of self-tolerance but rather an exaggerated response to specific antigens.
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