Which of the following are clinical manifestations of anaphylaxis? select all that apply
Hypertension
Angioedema
Petechiae
Bronchospasm
Correct Answer : B,D
A. Hypertension: Anaphylaxis often leads to a rapid drop in blood pressure (hypotension) rather than hypertension. Hypotension is a more common symptom because of the severe vasodilation that occurs during anaphylactic reactions.
B. Angioedema: Yes, angioedema is a common clinical manifestation of anaphylaxis. Angioedema involves swelling of the deeper layers of the skin, often around the eyes and lips. It can also affect the throat, which can be life-threatening due to airway obstruction.
C. Petechiae: Petechiae are small red or purple spots that appear on the skin and are caused by bleeding into the skin's tissues. They are not a typical manifestation of anaphylaxis.
D. Bronchospasm: Yes, bronchospasm is a hallmark clinical manifestation of anaphylaxis. It involves the sudden constriction of the airways, leading to difficulty in breathing and wheezing.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis."
Explanation: Tetracycline antibiotics interfere with bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the bacterial ribosomes. This binding prevents the attachment of transfer RNA (tRNA) to the messenger RNA (mRNA) complex, effectively inhibiting the production of proteins that are crucial for bacterial growth and replication.
B. "Tetracycline blocks RNA synthesis."
Explanation: This statement is incorrect. Tetracycline primarily affects protein synthesis, not RNA synthesis. It doesn't block the creation of RNA molecules in bacteria.
C. "Tetracycline degrades the bacterial cell wall."
Explanation: This statement is incorrect. Tetracycline antibiotics do not target bacterial cell walls. Agents like penicillins and cephalosporins are examples of antibiotics that disrupt bacterial cell walls.
D. "Tetracycline binds to magnesium ions."
Explanation: This statement is incorrect. Tetracycline does bind to certain metal ions, but it's not primarily through magnesium ions. The binding to bacterial ribosomes is a key mechanism of action for tetracyclines.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ceftaroline (Teflaro) is a fifth-generation cephalosporin antibiotic that is effective against MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus). It's the first cephalosporin in its class with this capability, making it a valuable choice in treating MRSA infections.
B. Cefepime (Maxipime) is a fourth-generation cephalosporin that does not have specific activity against MRSA.
C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is a third-generation cephalosporin, effective against a wide range of bacteria, but not specifically targeted at MRSA.
D. Cephalexin (Keflex) is a first-generation cephalosporin, primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria, but not effective against MRSA.
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