The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving vancomycin (Vancocin). The nurse notes that the patient is experiencing flushing, rash, pruritus, and urticaria. The patient's heart rate is 120 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 92/57 mm Hg. The nurse understands that these findings are consistent with:
allergic reaction.
rhabdomyolysis.
Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
red man syndrome.
The Correct Answer is D
Allergic reaction: An allergic reaction can manifest in various ways, including rash, itching, and difficulty breathing. However, the specific symptoms described, along with the context of vancomycin administration, point to red man syndrome in this case.
Rhabdomyolysis: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition where damaged muscle tissue breaks down and releases a protein called myoglobin into the bloodstream. This can cause kidney damage, but the symptoms described do not align with rhabdomyolysis.
Stevens-Johnson syndrome: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can cause skin and mucous membranes to blister, peel, and can be life-threatening. While it can present with rash and other skin symptoms, the symptoms mentioned in the scenario are more characteristic of red man syndrome.
Red man syndrome: As mentioned earlier, red man syndrome is an allergic reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, pruritus, and urticaria (hives), along with rapid heart rate and low blood pressure. It is specific to vancomycin and can be prevented or minimized by slowing down the infusion rate and administering antihistamines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Gentamicin: Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic effective against many bacteria, but it's not the first choice for MRSA. Vancomycin or other alternatives are preferred due to the rising resistance of MRSA to gentamicin.
B. Nafcillin: Nafcillin is a penicillin antibiotic, often used for penicillin-sensitive staphylococcal infections. However, it is not effective against MRSA, which is resistant to many penicillin-based antibiotics.
C. Vancomycin: Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic used to treat a variety of bacterial infections, including MRSA. It works by inhibiting cell wall synthesis in bacteria, making it effective against Gram-positive bacteria that have developed resistance to other antibiotics like methicillin (which MRSA has).
D. Penicillin: Penicillin is a group of antibiotics that includes drugs like amoxicillin and ampicillin. MRSA is resistant to penicillin-based antibiotics, so they are not effective against MRSA infections.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ceftaroline (Teflaro) is a fifth-generation cephalosporin antibiotic that is effective against MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus). It's the first cephalosporin in its class with this capability, making it a valuable choice in treating MRSA infections.
B. Cefepime (Maxipime) is a fourth-generation cephalosporin that does not have specific activity against MRSA.
C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is a third-generation cephalosporin, effective against a wide range of bacteria, but not specifically targeted at MRSA.
D. Cephalexin (Keflex) is a first-generation cephalosporin, primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria, but not effective against MRSA.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today