A kidney transplant recipient stops immunosuppressive therapy three years after his surgery. Shortly after stopping therapy, he demonstrated clinical manifestations of kidney failure. Which type of reaction does this represent?
Cushing's syndrome
Hypersensitivity reaction Type I
Chronic graft versus host rejection
Acute host versus graft rejection
The Correct Answer is D
A. Cushing's Syndrome: This is a condition caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands. It is not related to kidney transplant or immunosuppressive therapy.
B. Hypersensitivity Reaction Type I: Also known as an immediate hypersensitivity reaction or an allergy, this type of reaction involves the immune system's exaggerated response to an allergen. Symptoms can range from mild to severe and occur quickly after exposure to the allergen. While allergies can cause various symptoms, they do not specifically represent rejection of a transplanted organ.
C. Chronic Graft Versus Host Rejection: This term is commonly associated with bone marrow or stem cell transplants. It occurs when immune cells from the donated tissue recognize the recipient's body as foreign and attack various organs or tissues. This process typically happens over a more extended period and is not directly related to the scenario described.
D. Acute Host Versus Graft Rejection: This occurs when the recipient's immune system recognizes the transplanted organ as foreign and launches an immune response against it. It can happen shortly after transplantation if the recipient's immune system is not adequately suppressed. In this case, stopping immunosuppressive therapy can trigger acute rejection, leading to the failure of the transplanted organ.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer."
This statement is incorrect. The classification of cephalosporins into generations is based on their antimicrobial spectrum and activity against specific bacteria, not their cost.
B. "Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."
This statement is not accurate. In fact, later generations of cephalosporins have increased resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases, which are enzymes produced by bacteria that can break down certain antibiotics.
C. "Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each new generation."
This statement is correct. Cephalosporins are grouped into generations (first to fifth) based on their antibacterial spectrum. As the generations progress, there is an increase in activity against gram-negative bacteria, among other improvements in their spectrum.
D. "First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid."
This statement is generally true. First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid, making them useful for treating certain central nervous system infections.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. 8:00 AM: This time is too early to draw a trough level for a medication administered at 10:00 AM. The trough level should be drawn just before the next dose is given to get the lowest concentration in the bloodstream.
B. 11:00 AM: This time is after the scheduled dose of vancomycin at 10:00 AM. Waiting until 11:00 AM would not provide an accurate trough level because the patient has already received the medication.
C. 9:00 AM: This is the correct time to obtain the patient's blood sample. It is one hour before the scheduled dose of vancomycin at 10:00 AM. Drawing the trough level at this time ensures it reflects the lowest concentration of the drug in the bloodstream.
D. 12:00 noon: This time is after the scheduled dose of vancomycin at 10:00 AM. Waiting until noon would not provide an accurate trough level because the patient has already received the medication.
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