A nursing student asks the nursing instructor about the mechanism of the bacteriostatic action of tetracycline. Which explanation is correct?
"Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis."
"Tetracycline blocks RNA synthesis."
"Tetracycline degrades the bacterial cell wall."
"Tetracycline binds to magnesium ions."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis."
Explanation: Tetracycline antibiotics interfere with bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the bacterial ribosomes. This binding prevents the attachment of transfer RNA (tRNA) to the messenger RNA (mRNA) complex, effectively inhibiting the production of proteins that are crucial for bacterial growth and replication.
B. "Tetracycline blocks RNA synthesis."
Explanation: This statement is incorrect. Tetracycline primarily affects protein synthesis, not RNA synthesis. It doesn't block the creation of RNA molecules in bacteria.
C. "Tetracycline degrades the bacterial cell wall."
Explanation: This statement is incorrect. Tetracycline antibiotics do not target bacterial cell walls. Agents like penicillins and cephalosporins are examples of antibiotics that disrupt bacterial cell walls.
D. "Tetracycline binds to magnesium ions."
Explanation: This statement is incorrect. Tetracycline does bind to certain metal ions, but it's not primarily through magnesium ions. The binding to bacterial ribosomes is a key mechanism of action for tetracyclines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ceftaroline (Teflaro) is a fifth-generation cephalosporin antibiotic that is effective against MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus). It's the first cephalosporin in its class with this capability, making it a valuable choice in treating MRSA infections.
B. Cefepime (Maxipime) is a fourth-generation cephalosporin that does not have specific activity against MRSA.
C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is a third-generation cephalosporin, effective against a wide range of bacteria, but not specifically targeted at MRSA.
D. Cephalexin (Keflex) is a first-generation cephalosporin, primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria, but not effective against MRSA.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. 8:00 AM: This time is too early to draw a trough level for a medication administered at 10:00 AM. The trough level should be drawn just before the next dose is given to get the lowest concentration in the bloodstream.
B. 11:00 AM: This time is after the scheduled dose of vancomycin at 10:00 AM. Waiting until 11:00 AM would not provide an accurate trough level because the patient has already received the medication.
C. 9:00 AM: This is the correct time to obtain the patient's blood sample. It is one hour before the scheduled dose of vancomycin at 10:00 AM. Drawing the trough level at this time ensures it reflects the lowest concentration of the drug in the bloodstream.
D. 12:00 noon: This time is after the scheduled dose of vancomycin at 10:00 AM. Waiting until noon would not provide an accurate trough level because the patient has already received the medication.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today