A nurse is teaching a nursing student what is meant by "generations" of cephalosporins. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer."
"Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."
"Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each new generation."
"First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid."
The Correct Answer is C
A. "Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer."
This statement is incorrect. The classification of cephalosporins into generations is based on their antimicrobial spectrum and activity against specific bacteria, not their cost.
B. "Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."
This statement is not accurate. In fact, later generations of cephalosporins have increased resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases, which are enzymes produced by bacteria that can break down certain antibiotics.
C. "Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each new generation."
This statement is correct. Cephalosporins are grouped into generations (first to fifth) based on their antibacterial spectrum. As the generations progress, there is an increase in activity against gram-negative bacteria, among other improvements in their spectrum.
D. "First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid."
This statement is generally true. First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid, making them useful for treating certain central nervous system infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. 8:00 AM: This time is too early to draw a trough level for a medication administered at 10:00 AM. The trough level should be drawn just before the next dose is given to get the lowest concentration in the bloodstream.
B. 11:00 AM: This time is after the scheduled dose of vancomycin at 10:00 AM. Waiting until 11:00 AM would not provide an accurate trough level because the patient has already received the medication.
C. 9:00 AM: This is the correct time to obtain the patient's blood sample. It is one hour before the scheduled dose of vancomycin at 10:00 AM. Drawing the trough level at this time ensures it reflects the lowest concentration of the drug in the bloodstream.
D. 12:00 noon: This time is after the scheduled dose of vancomycin at 10:00 AM. Waiting until noon would not provide an accurate trough level because the patient has already received the medication.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Vancomycin is often administered over at least 60 minutes to reduce the risk of infusion-related reactions, such as "Red Man Syndrome," which is characterized by flushing, rash, and itching. This reaction is caused by the rapid infusion of vancomycin, leading to the release of histamine.
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