A nurse is teaching a nursing student what is meant by "generations" of cephalosporins. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer."
"Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."
"Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each new generation."
"First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid."
The Correct Answer is C
A. "Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer."
This statement is incorrect. The classification of cephalosporins into generations is based on their antimicrobial spectrum and activity against specific bacteria, not their cost.
B. "Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."
This statement is not accurate. In fact, later generations of cephalosporins have increased resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases, which are enzymes produced by bacteria that can break down certain antibiotics.
C. "Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each new generation."
This statement is correct. Cephalosporins are grouped into generations (first to fifth) based on their antibacterial spectrum. As the generations progress, there is an increase in activity against gram-negative bacteria, among other improvements in their spectrum.
D. "First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid."
This statement is generally true. First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid, making them useful for treating certain central nervous system infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Dermatitis and headaches: Prednisone use can sometimes cause skin issues, but dermatitis is not a common side effect. Headaches can also occur, but they are not specific to long-term prednisone therapy.
B. Heart failure and headaches: Prednisone does not directly cause heart failure. Headaches can occur but are not specific indicators of prednisone side effects.
C. Hyperglycemia and osteoporosis: Prednisone can lead to elevated blood glucose levels (hyperglycemia) and increased bone loss (osteoporosis) when used long-term. Regular monitoring is essential to manage these potential side effects.
D. Weight loss and hypoglycemia: Prednisone can cause weight gain rather than weight loss. Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) is not a common side effect of prednisone; it typically causes hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) instead.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Viral Latency: Some viruses, like herpesviruses, can enter a latent phase where they hide in host cells, making it challenging for the immune system to detect and target them.
B. Host Defense Failure: This term encompasses situations where the host's defense mechanisms, including physical barriers and immune responses, are not effective in preventing or controlling infection. For example, pathogens may develop mechanisms to evade detection by the immune system.
C. Immunosuppression: Pathogens can actively suppress the host's immune response. They may produce molecules or proteins that inhibit the immune system's ability to mount an effective defense.
D. Immunodeficiency: Individuals with immunodeficiency disorders have weakened immune systems, which can be congenital (genetic) or acquired. This weakness makes them more susceptible to infections.
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