A client with chronic pain is using aspirin regularly to control her pain symptoms. She presents to the hospital with abdominal pain, pale skin, afebrile, and a blood pressure (BP) of 83/45 mm Hg. Which type of shock is the client most likely experiencing?
Hypovolemic shock
Obstructive shock
Cardiogenic shock
Septic shock
The Correct Answer is A
A. Hypovolemic shock is characterized by low blood pressure, pale skin, and abdominal pain due to significant fluid loss or hemorrhage. The client's symptoms, including hypotension and abdominal pain, suggest a reduction in blood volume potentially caused by gastrointestinal bleeding or ulceration, which is consistent with chronic aspirin use.
B. Obstructive shock is due to a physical obstruction of blood flow, such as a pulmonary embolism or cardiac tamponade, which does not directly correlate with the client's presentation of symptoms.
C. Cardiogenic shock results from severe heart failure and is typically accompanied by signs of heart dysfunction, not just low blood pressure and abdominal pain.
D. Septic shock is associated with infection and systemic inflammation, often presenting with fever and other signs of infection, which the client is not exhibiting.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Desmopressin acetate is used to treat diabetes insipidus, not SIADH. In SIADH, there is excessive antidiuretic hormone causing fluid retention and dilutional hyponatremia, so this medication would not be appropriate.
B. Maintaining an IV infusion of 0.45% sodium chloride is not appropriate for SIADH, as this solution can further dilute sodium levels. Treatment usually involves hypertonic saline or fluid restriction.
C. Restricting fluid intake is a key management strategy for SIADH to address the fluid overload and help correct the low sodium levels. This action directly targets the root cause of the hyponatremia by reducing fluid intake.
D. Providing a diet with 2 g of sodium per day may not be sufficient or appropriate for treating SIADH-related hyponatremia. Fluid restriction is more critical in managing this condition.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 15-30 minutes before a meal to manage blood glucose levels effectively. This timing helps to match the peak action of the insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating.
B. Hypoglycemia from insulin lispro typically occurs within 1-3 hours of administration, not 4 hours later. Regular monitoring during this time frame is more appropriate.
C. An increase in appetite is not a direct result of insulin lispro administration and does not indicate insulin effectiveness or safety.
D. Insulin lispro and insulin glargine should not be mixed in the same syringe as they have different action profiles and pH levels, which can affect their efficacy.
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