A client is exploring treatment options after being diagnosed with age-related cataracts that affect their vision. What treatment is most likely to be used in this client's care?
Surgical intervention
Corticosteroid eye drops
Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium
Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses
The Correct Answer is A
A. Surgical intervention is the most common and effective treatment for age-related cataracts. Cataract surgery involves the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial intraocular lens, which can significantly improve vision.
B. Corticosteroid eye drops are not used to treat cataracts; they are generally prescribed for reducing inflammation in various eye conditions but do not address the lens opacity caused by cataracts.
C. Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium have been studied for their potential role in slowing the progression of cataracts, but they are not considered a primary treatment once cataracts have developed to the point of affecting vision.
D. Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses may help improve vision temporarily in the early stages of cataracts, but they do not treat the underlying cause and are not effective in advanced cases. Surgery remains the definitive treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A positive Western blot test confirms the diagnosis of HIV, but it is not concerning once the diagnosis has been established.
B. A CD4-T-cell count of 505 cells/mm³ is low but not critically low. While it does indicate immunosuppression, it is not the most concerning value presented.
C. A platelet count of 115,000/mm³ is lower than normal and may indicate a risk for bleeding, but it is not as concerning as a critically low white blood cell count.
D. A WBC count of 800/mm³ is severely low and indicates a high risk for infection, which is particularly concerning in a client with HIV, as it suggests significant immunosuppression and vulnerability to opportunistic infections.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 13 to 10 indicates a significant change in consciousness and may suggest worsening of the brain injury. This is a critical sign that requires immediate reporting and evaluation.
B. Diplopia (double vision) can be a concerning symptom, but it is not as immediately critical as a significant change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score. It still warrants attention but may not be the highest priority.
C. Ataxia (lack of voluntary coordination of muscle movements) is a serious symptom that could indicate worsening of the brain injury but is not as immediately critical as a significant change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score.
D. A drop in heart rate from 76 to 70/min is generally not significant in the context of mild TBI. Changes in heart rate are less critical compared to changes in the level of consciousness.
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