A client is exploring treatment options after being diagnosed with age-related cataracts that affect their vision. What treatment is most likely to be used in this client's care?
Surgical intervention
Corticosteroid eye drops
Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium
Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses
The Correct Answer is A
A. Surgical intervention is the most common and effective treatment for age-related cataracts. Cataract surgery involves the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial intraocular lens, which can significantly improve vision.
B. Corticosteroid eye drops are not used to treat cataracts; they are generally prescribed for reducing inflammation in various eye conditions but do not address the lens opacity caused by cataracts.
C. Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium have been studied for their potential role in slowing the progression of cataracts, but they are not considered a primary treatment once cataracts have developed to the point of affecting vision.
D. Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses may help improve vision temporarily in the early stages of cataracts, but they do not treat the underlying cause and are not effective in advanced cases. Surgery remains the definitive treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Petechiae are small, red or purple spots on the skin that indicate bleeding under the skin and are a classic sign of thrombocytopenia, a condition characterized by a low platelet count.
B. A decreased white blood cell count is more indicative of leukopenia, not thrombocytopenia. Thrombocytopenia specifically affects platelet counts.
C. Increased fatigue can be a symptom of many conditions but is not specific to thrombocytopenia. It may occur due to anemia or other side effects of chemotherapy.
D. Unexplained bone pain is not a typical symptom of thrombocytopenia. It might be related to other conditions or side effects but is not specific to low platelet counts.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. DKA occurs due to a significant deficiency of insulin rather than issues with cell response to insulin. The condition leads to high blood glucose and ketone production because there is not enough insulin to regulate glucose levels effectively.
B. DKA is primarily associated with diabetes mellitus type 1, not type 2. It can occur due to a lack of insulin and is not solely caused by illness, although illness can exacerbate it.
C. DKA is not limited to clients with diabetes mellitus type 1 who experience septic shock. It can occur in anyone with type 1 diabetes due to severe insulin deficiency, though septic shock can complicate the condition.
D. DKA results from a complete absence of insulin, which is characteristic of poorly controlled or undiagnosed diabetes mellitus type 1. This insulin deficiency leads to elevated blood glucose levels and ketone formation.
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