A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus type 2 and presents for a follow-up visit. Which of the following lab values is most indicative of inadequate control of their diabetes since their last primary care visit and requires further teaching?

HbA1c level of 7.5% (nl. 4.4-6.4%)

2-hour post-prandial blood glucose level of 122 mg/dL (nl. <120 mg/dL)

Random blood glucose level of 300 mg/dL (nl. <200 mg/dL)

Fasting blood glucose level of 48 mg/dL (nl. 60-110 mg/dL)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. An HbA1c level of 7.5% indicates suboptimal long-term glucose control. The target for many diabetic patients is usually below 7%, but it may not require immediate action compared to more acute indicators.
B. A 2-hour post-prandial blood glucose level of 122 mg/dL is slightly above the normal range but not significantly high. This result alone is not as indicative of inadequate control as other values.
C. A random blood glucose level of 300 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates poor glucose control. This value is much higher than the normal range and suggests a need for further teaching and adjustment of diabetes management.
D. A fasting blood glucose level of 48 mg/dL is low and could indicate hypoglycemia rather than inadequate control. This level requires immediate attention but does not reflect poor long-term diabetes management.

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}

Explanation

Intravenous fluid administration is anticipated as hydration can help reduce the viscosity of sickled cells, improving circulation and potentially reducing vaso-occlusive events.

Ice packs to the affected area are nonessential and could potentially be contraindicated, as cold can cause vasoconstriction and may exacerbate pain.

Ambulation is nonessential during acute pain episodes and should be encouraged when the patient is comfortable and pain is controlled.

Hydromorphone IV for pain is anticipated because it is a stronger opioid than morphine and may be necessary if the pain is unresponsive to oral morphine sulfate.

Acetaminophen PO for pain is nonessential in this scenario as it is unlikely to provide adequate pain relief for severe vaso-occlusive pain.

Oxygen therapy is nonessential given the client's SpO2 is 95% on room air, indicating adequate oxygen saturation; however, it may be considered if there is evidence of hypoxia or respiratory distress. It is crucial to monitor the client's response to pain management interventions and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.

A. Osteoarthritis B. Place of employment C. Gentamycin D. Naproxen E. Bumetanide F. Heart failure

Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Osteoarthritis is not associated with hearing loss
B. The client's place of employment as a firearms instructor at a shooting range exposes them to loud noises, which is a well-known risk factor for hearing loss.
C. Gentamycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can be ototoxic, especially when administered in high doses or for prolonged periods, potentially leading to hearing loss.
D. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that has been associated with an increased risk of hearing loss, particularly when taken regularly or in high doses.
E. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that can also have ototoxic effects, especially when used in conjunction with aminoglycoside antibiotics like gentamycin.
F. Heart failure is not associated with hearing loss

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A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus type 2 and presents for a follow-up visit. Which of the following lab values is most indicative of inadequate control of their diabetes since their last primary care visit and requires further teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a 38-year-old client who presents to the emergency department (ED) in pain. Exhibits For each potential healthcare provider's prescription, click to specify if the potential prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}

Explanation

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Explanation

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