A nurse is caring for a client in septic shock. The client is still hypotensive and lethargic following a 2,500 mL fluid bolus of lactated Ringer (LR) solution. Which of the following interventions does the nurse anticipate next?
Epinephrine intramuscular (IM) injection
Norepinephrine intravenous (IV) infusion
Dobutamine intravenous (IV) infusion
Dexamethasone intravenous (IV) injection
The Correct Answer is B
A. Epinephrine IM injection is not appropriate in this scenario, as it is typically reserved for treating anaphylactic shock. It is not used for septic shock where hypotension persists after fluid resuscitation.
B. Norepinephrine IV infusion is the correct choice. It is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock management when a fluid bolus does not adequately raise blood pressure. Norepinephrine works by constricting blood vessels, thereby increasing vascular resistance and blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine IV infusion might be considered if there is evidence of myocardial dysfunction or if additional inotropic support is necessary. However, it is not the immediate next step following fluid resuscitation when addressing persistent hypotension in septic shock.
D. Dexamethasone IV injection is not indicated for treating septic shock directly. It may be used in other contexts, such as treating adrenal insufficiency or reducing inflammation, but it does not play a role in immediate blood pressure management in septic shock.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Decreased prothrombin time is not typically associated with the emergent phase of a burn injury. Prothrombin time changes are more related to liver function or coagulation disorders.
B. Increased hematocrit is common in the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury due to fluid shifts and loss of plasma volume, leading to hemoconcentration.
C. Increased sodium is not typically seen in the emergent phase; instead, hyponatremia may occur due to fluid shifts and loss of sodium in the burn exudate.
D. Potassium deficit is more likely to occur later in the burn management phases. In the emergent phase, hyperkalemia is more common due to cell destruction and release of intracellular potassium.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A. The fingerstick blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL at 1130 indicates hypoglycemia, which requires immediate attention to prevent further complications such as loss of consciousness or severe symptoms.
B. The client's report of shakiness, hunger, and cool, diaphoretic skin are signs of hypoglycemia, especially given the low blood glucose level. This requires prompt intervention to manage the blood glucose level.
C. The temperature of 37.8 °C (100 °F) is slightly elevated but does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other symptoms of infection or significant changes.
D. The elevated heart rate of 118/min could indicate an underlying issue such as dehydration, hypoglycemia, or infection. It requires further evaluation in the context of other findings.
E. The SpO2 of 95% on room air is within an acceptable range and does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other signs of respiratory distress or worsening condition.
F. The HbA1c of 8.01% reflects long-term glucose control but is not an immediate concern for follow-up in the acute setting. It is important for overall management but not an urgent issue for this particular scenario.
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