A nurse is caring for a client in septic shock. The client is still hypotensive and lethargic following a 2,500 mL fluid bolus of lactated Ringer (LR) solution. Which of the following interventions does the nurse anticipate next?
Epinephrine intramuscular (IM) injection
Norepinephrine intravenous (IV) infusion
Dobutamine intravenous (IV) infusion
Dexamethasone intravenous (IV) injection
The Correct Answer is B
A. Epinephrine IM injection is not appropriate in this scenario, as it is typically reserved for treating anaphylactic shock. It is not used for septic shock where hypotension persists after fluid resuscitation.
B. Norepinephrine IV infusion is the correct choice. It is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock management when a fluid bolus does not adequately raise blood pressure. Norepinephrine works by constricting blood vessels, thereby increasing vascular resistance and blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine IV infusion might be considered if there is evidence of myocardial dysfunction or if additional inotropic support is necessary. However, it is not the immediate next step following fluid resuscitation when addressing persistent hypotension in septic shock.
D. Dexamethasone IV injection is not indicated for treating septic shock directly. It may be used in other contexts, such as treating adrenal insufficiency or reducing inflammation, but it does not play a role in immediate blood pressure management in septic shock.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Vasopressin does not typically increase the client's heart rate; its primary effect is on the kidneys and urine output.
B. Vasopressin generally increases blood pressure by promoting vasoconstriction, not decreases it.
C. Vasopressin will increase, not decrease, urine specific gravity by reducing urine output and concentrating the urine.
D. Vasopressin acts to decrease urine output by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, which helps manage diabetes insipidus.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Assessing the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is important to monitor the effectiveness of treatment and manage bleeding risk. Hemophilia A is characterized by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, which prolongs the aPTT.
A. Applying heated compresses is not recommended for hemarthrosis; instead, cold compresses should be used to reduce bleeding and swelling.
C. Low-dose aspirin is contraindicated for clients with hemophilia because it can further inhibit platelet function and increase bleeding risk.
D. Autologous blood transfusion is not typically required for hemophilia; factor replacement therapy is the standard treatment.
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