A nurse is caring for a client in septic shock. The client is still hypotensive and lethargic following a 2,500 mL fluid bolus of lactated Ringer (LR) solution. Which of the following interventions does the nurse anticipate next?
Epinephrine intramuscular (IM) injection
Norepinephrine intravenous (IV) infusion
Dobutamine intravenous (IV) infusion
Dexamethasone intravenous (IV) injection
The Correct Answer is B
A. Epinephrine IM injection is not appropriate in this scenario, as it is typically reserved for treating anaphylactic shock. It is not used for septic shock where hypotension persists after fluid resuscitation.
B. Norepinephrine IV infusion is the correct choice. It is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock management when a fluid bolus does not adequately raise blood pressure. Norepinephrine works by constricting blood vessels, thereby increasing vascular resistance and blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine IV infusion might be considered if there is evidence of myocardial dysfunction or if additional inotropic support is necessary. However, it is not the immediate next step following fluid resuscitation when addressing persistent hypotension in septic shock.
D. Dexamethasone IV injection is not indicated for treating septic shock directly. It may be used in other contexts, such as treating adrenal insufficiency or reducing inflammation, but it does not play a role in immediate blood pressure management in septic shock.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Performing hand hygiene before, during, and after direct contact with the client is the most effective strategy for preventing the transmission of infections. Hand hygiene interrupts the transmission of pathogens and is a cornerstone of infection control practices.
B. Changing the client's bed linens each day is a standard practice for maintaining cleanliness but does not specifically prevent infection transmission. The primary goal of infection control is to reduce pathogen transmission rather than just maintaining general cleanliness.
C. Controlling the client's blood glucose level is important for overall health and wound healing but does not directly prevent infection transmission. It is not an infection control strategy.
D. Placing the client in a room with positive-pressure airflow is used to protect immunocompromised patients from infections by preventing outside air from entering the room. However, it is not appropriate for preventing the transmission of an infection from a client to others.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hypovolemic shock is characterized by low blood pressure, pale skin, and abdominal pain due to significant fluid loss or hemorrhage. The client's symptoms, including hypotension and abdominal pain, suggest a reduction in blood volume potentially caused by gastrointestinal bleeding or ulceration, which is consistent with chronic aspirin use.
B. Obstructive shock is due to a physical obstruction of blood flow, such as a pulmonary embolism or cardiac tamponade, which does not directly correlate with the client's presentation of symptoms.
C. Cardiogenic shock results from severe heart failure and is typically accompanied by signs of heart dysfunction, not just low blood pressure and abdominal pain.
D. Septic shock is associated with infection and systemic inflammation, often presenting with fever and other signs of infection, which the client is not exhibiting.
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