A nurse is caring for a 43-year-old client who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.
The client is at risk for developing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Sepsis: The client's low CD4 count indicates a weakened immune system, making them susceptible to infections. The presence of fever, cough, and other symptoms suggests a potential infection, which can lead to sepsis if not treated promptly.
Malnutrition: The client's weight loss, diarrhea, anorexia, and difficulty eating are all signs of malnutrition. A compromised immune system can also contribute to malnutrition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A. The fingerstick blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL at 1130 indicates hypoglycemia, which requires immediate attention to prevent further complications such as loss of consciousness or severe symptoms.
B. The client's report of shakiness, hunger, and cool, diaphoretic skin are signs of hypoglycemia, especially given the low blood glucose level. This requires prompt intervention to manage the blood glucose level.
C. The temperature of 37.8 °C (100 °F) is slightly elevated but does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other symptoms of infection or significant changes.
D. The elevated heart rate of 118/min could indicate an underlying issue such as dehydration, hypoglycemia, or infection. It requires further evaluation in the context of other findings.
E. The SpO2 of 95% on room air is within an acceptable range and does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other signs of respiratory distress or worsening condition.
F. The HbA1c of 8.01% reflects long-term glucose control but is not an immediate concern for follow-up in the acute setting. It is important for overall management but not an urgent issue for this particular scenario.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.
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