A nurse is providing education about levothyroxine to a client diagnosed with primary hypothyroidism. Which of the following statements should the nurse use when teaching the client?
"Tremors, nervousness, and insomnia may indicate your dose is too high."
"Notify your healthcare provider if you begin to lose weight."
"This medication will require monitoring for increased risk for bleeding."
"The medication decreases the overproduction of the thyroid hormone thyroxine."
The Correct Answer is A
A. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement used to treat hypothyroidism. Symptoms such as tremors, nervousness, and insomnia can indicate that the dose is too high, as these are signs of hyperthyroidism.
B. Weight loss is not a typical reason to notify the healthcare provider unless it is accompanied by other symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for symptoms of excessive thyroid hormone can be more critical.
C. Levothyroxine does not typically require monitoring for an increased risk of bleeding. This medication primarily affects thyroid hormone levels and does not have a direct impact on blood clotting.
D. Levothyroxine increases, rather than decreases, thyroid hormone levels. It is used to replace or supplement thyroid hormone in the case of hypothyroidism, not to decrease thyroid hormone production.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Droplet precautions are not appropriate for anthrax exposure. Precautions would be based on the specific form of anthrax (cutaneous, inhalation, or gastrointestinal).
B. Anthrax is treated with antibiotics, not antiviral therapy. Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline is typically used for prophylaxis and treatment.
C. While assessing for hemorrhage might be relevant in cases of severe anthrax, it is more critical initially to focus on respiratory assessment, particularly for inhalation anthrax.
D. Assessing the respiratory system is crucial for clients exposed to anthrax, particularly inhalation anthrax, as it can cause severe respiratory symptoms and complications. Prompt assessment is essential for early detection and treatment of respiratory distress.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Surgical intervention is the most common and effective treatment for age-related cataracts. Cataract surgery involves the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial intraocular lens, which can significantly improve vision.
B. Corticosteroid eye drops are not used to treat cataracts; they are generally prescribed for reducing inflammation in various eye conditions but do not address the lens opacity caused by cataracts.
C. Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium have been studied for their potential role in slowing the progression of cataracts, but they are not considered a primary treatment once cataracts have developed to the point of affecting vision.
D. Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses may help improve vision temporarily in the early stages of cataracts, but they do not treat the underlying cause and are not effective in advanced cases. Surgery remains the definitive treatment.
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