A nurse in a clinic is caring for a female client who was exposed to gonorrhea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Instruct the client to take pain-relieving medications.

Collect a basic metabolic panel (BMP) specimen from the client.

Obtain information about the client's recent sexual experiences.

Inform the client about pelvic ultrasound procedure.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Pain-relieving medications may be appropriate for symptom management but do not address the need for diagnosis or treatment of gonorrhea exposure.
B. A basic metabolic panel (BMP) is not relevant to the diagnosis or management of gonorrhea. Testing for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) requires specific diagnostic tests.
C. Obtaining information about the client's recent sexual experiences is crucial for assessing risk factors, guiding testing, and determining appropriate treatment for gonorrhea.
D. A pelvic ultrasound is not typically the initial step in managing gonorrhea exposure. It might be used to assess complications but is not relevant for initial assessment or treatment.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A positive Western blot test confirms the diagnosis of HIV, but it is not concerning once the diagnosis has been established.
B. A CD4-T-cell count of 505 cells/mm³ is low but not critically low. While it does indicate immunosuppression, it is not the most concerning value presented.
C. A platelet count of 115,000/mm³ is lower than normal and may indicate a risk for bleeding, but it is not as concerning as a critically low white blood cell count.
D. A WBC count of 800/mm³ is severely low and indicates a high risk for infection, which is particularly concerning in a client with HIV, as it suggests significant immunosuppression and vulnerability to opportunistic infections.

A. Hypovolemic shock B. Obstructive shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Septic shock

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Hypovolemic shock is characterized by low blood pressure, pale skin, and abdominal pain due to significant fluid loss or hemorrhage. The client's symptoms, including hypotension and abdominal pain, suggest a reduction in blood volume potentially caused by gastrointestinal bleeding or ulceration, which is consistent with chronic aspirin use.
B. Obstructive shock is due to a physical obstruction of blood flow, such as a pulmonary embolism or cardiac tamponade, which does not directly correlate with the client's presentation of symptoms.
C. Cardiogenic shock results from severe heart failure and is typically accompanied by signs of heart dysfunction, not just low blood pressure and abdominal pain.
D. Septic shock is associated with infection and systemic inflammation, often presenting with fever and other signs of infection, which the client is not exhibiting.

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A nurse in a clinic is caring for a female client who was exposed to gonorrhea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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