A nurse in a clinic is caring for a female client who was exposed to gonorrhea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Instruct the client to take pain-relieving medications.

Collect a basic metabolic panel (BMP) specimen from the client.

Obtain information about the client's recent sexual experiences.

Inform the client about pelvic ultrasound procedure.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Pain-relieving medications may be appropriate for symptom management but do not address the need for diagnosis or treatment of gonorrhea exposure.
B. A basic metabolic panel (BMP) is not relevant to the diagnosis or management of gonorrhea. Testing for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) requires specific diagnostic tests.
C. Obtaining information about the client's recent sexual experiences is crucial for assessing risk factors, guiding testing, and determining appropriate treatment for gonorrhea.
D. A pelvic ultrasound is not typically the initial step in managing gonorrhea exposure. It might be used to assess complications but is not relevant for initial assessment or treatment.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Neurogenic shock is characterized by the loss of sympathetic tone, leading to parasympathetic predominance. Therefore, signs of sympathetic stimulation, such as tachycardia or sweating, are not present.
B. Neurogenic shock typically causes hypotension, not hypertension, due to vasodilation and decreased systemic vascular resistance.
C. Cool, moist skin is more commonly seen in hypovolemic or septic shock due to peripheral vasoconstriction. In neurogenic shock, vasodilation leads to warm, dry skin.
D. Bradycardia is a hallmark of neurogenic shock due to unopposed parasympathetic stimulation resulting from the loss of sympathetic nervous system control.

A. Epinephrine intramuscular (IM) injection B. Norepinephrine intravenous (IV) infusion C. Dobutamine intravenous (IV) infusion D. Dexamethasone intravenous (IV) injection

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Epinephrine IM injection is not appropriate in this scenario, as it is typically reserved for treating anaphylactic shock. It is not used for septic shock where hypotension persists after fluid resuscitation.
B. Norepinephrine IV infusion is the correct choice. It is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock management when a fluid bolus does not adequately raise blood pressure. Norepinephrine works by constricting blood vessels, thereby increasing vascular resistance and blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine IV infusion might be considered if there is evidence of myocardial dysfunction or if additional inotropic support is necessary. However, it is not the immediate next step following fluid resuscitation when addressing persistent hypotension in septic shock.
D. Dexamethasone IV injection is not indicated for treating septic shock directly. It may be used in other contexts, such as treating adrenal insufficiency or reducing inflammation, but it does not play a role in immediate blood pressure management in septic shock.

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A nurse in a clinic is caring for a female client who was exposed to gonorrhea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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