A nurse is caring for a 72-year-old client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Select the 3 findings that require immediate follow-up.
Glucose at 1130
Client report of shakiness
Temperature
Heart rate
SPO2
HbA1c
Correct Answer : A,B,D
A. The fingerstick blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL at 1130 indicates hypoglycemia, which requires immediate attention to prevent further complications such as loss of consciousness or severe symptoms.
B. The client's report of shakiness, hunger, and cool, diaphoretic skin are signs of hypoglycemia, especially given the low blood glucose level. This requires prompt intervention to manage the blood glucose level.
C. The temperature of 37.8 °C (100 °F) is slightly elevated but does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other symptoms of infection or significant changes.
D. The elevated heart rate of 118/min could indicate an underlying issue such as dehydration, hypoglycemia, or infection. It requires further evaluation in the context of other findings.
E. The SpO2 of 95% on room air is within an acceptable range and does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other signs of respiratory distress or worsening condition.
F. The HbA1c of 8.01% reflects long-term glucose control but is not an immediate concern for follow-up in the acute setting. It is important for overall management but not an urgent issue for this particular scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Malignant hypertension poses risks for other conditions but is not the primary risk factor for cardiogenic shock.
B. A stroke does not directly lead to cardiogenic shock, though it may have other significant complications.
C. Acute kidney injury affects renal function but is not the primary risk for cardiogenic shock.
D. A myocardial infarction (MI) can impair the heart's pumping ability, leading to cardiogenic shock. This is due to the damage to heart muscle that can severely impact cardiac output and blood pressure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The treatment for vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE) in a previous admission is not directly related to the development of CLABSI in the current situation. The infection is more likely caused by improper handling or maintenance of the central line.
B. Drawing blood cultures from the central line, while not ideal, is not the most likely cause of CLABSI. Proper technique can mitigate the risk of introducing infection during this procedure.
C. Changing the central line dressing using clean technique instead of sterile technique increases the risk of introducing pathogens to the central line site, leading to a central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI).
D. Receiving antibiotics and intravenous fluids through the same line does not typically cause CLABSI if the line is properly maintained and sterile techniques are observed during administration.
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