A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoses on the client's sacral area and petechiae on the forearms. Based on the most recent assessment findings, the nurse should perform which action?

Place the client on protective isolation.

Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism.

Initiate droplet precautions.

Check the client's most recent platelet level.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Protective isolation is not directly related to the symptoms of ecchymoses and petechiae but is more relevant for preventing infections in immunocompromised clients.
B. Measures to prevent venous thromboembolism are not the immediate concern given the bleeding symptoms; instead, managing platelet levels and bleeding risks is more critical.
C. Droplet precautions are not indicated based on the described symptoms, which are more related to bleeding disorders rather than infectious conditions requiring droplet precautions.
D. Checking the client's most recent platelet level is the most appropriate action because ecchymoses and petechiae are signs of potential thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), which is common in leukemia. Monitoring platelet levels will help determine if there is a need for interventions to address bleeding risks.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Assessing the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is important to monitor the effectiveness of treatment and manage bleeding risk. Hemophilia A is characterized by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, which prolongs the aPTT.
A. Applying heated compresses is not recommended for hemarthrosis; instead, cold compresses should be used to reduce bleeding and swelling.
C. Low-dose aspirin is contraindicated for clients with hemophilia because it can further inhibit platelet function and increase bleeding risk.
D. Autologous blood transfusion is not typically required for hemophilia; factor replacement therapy is the standard treatment.

A. Absence of pulmonary and peripheral edema B. Reduced stroke volume and cardiac output C. Reduced systolic and diastolic blood pressure D. Maintenance of adequate mean arterial pressure

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Absence of pulmonary and peripheral edema is not a primary goal of vasopressor therapy. The focus is on improving blood pressure and perfusion.
B. Vasopressor therapy aims to increase blood pressure, not reduce stroke volume or cardiac output.
C. Vasopressors are used to increase blood pressure, so reducing blood pressure is not an intended goal.
D. The primary goal of vasopressor therapy in septic shock is to maintain an adequate mean arterial pressure (MAP) to ensure adequate organ perfusion and prevent organ failure.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoses on the client's sacral area and petechiae on the forearms. Based on the most recent assessment findings, the nurse should perform which action?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has hemophilia A and hemarthrosis of the left knee. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The critical care nurse is preparing to initiate an infusion of a vasopressor medication to a client in septic shock. What goal of this treatment should the nurse identify?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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