A nurse is caring for a client who has been exposed to anthrax. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to use while caring for this client?

Initiate droplet precautions.

Prepare to administer antiviral therapy.

Assess for hemorrhage.

Assess the respiratory system.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Droplet precautions are not appropriate for anthrax exposure. Precautions would be based on the specific form of anthrax (cutaneous, inhalation, or gastrointestinal).
B. Anthrax is treated with antibiotics, not antiviral therapy. Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline is typically used for prophylaxis and treatment.
C. While assessing for hemorrhage might be relevant in cases of severe anthrax, it is more critical initially to focus on respiratory assessment, particularly for inhalation anthrax.
D. Assessing the respiratory system is crucial for clients exposed to anthrax, particularly inhalation anthrax, as it can cause severe respiratory symptoms and complications. Prompt assessment is essential for early detection and treatment of respiratory distress.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Absence of pulmonary and peripheral edema is not a primary goal of vasopressor therapy. The focus is on improving blood pressure and perfusion.
B. Vasopressor therapy aims to increase blood pressure, not reduce stroke volume or cardiac output.
C. Vasopressors are used to increase blood pressure, so reducing blood pressure is not an intended goal.
D. The primary goal of vasopressor therapy in septic shock is to maintain an adequate mean arterial pressure (MAP) to ensure adequate organ perfusion and prevent organ failure.

A. Administer desmopressin acetate 0.2 mg orally B. Maintain an intravenous (IV) infusion of 0.45% sodium chloride C. Restrict fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day D. Provide a diet containing 2 g of sodium per day

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Desmopressin acetate is used to treat diabetes insipidus, not SIADH. In SIADH, there is excessive antidiuretic hormone causing fluid retention and dilutional hyponatremia, so this medication would not be appropriate.
B. Maintaining an IV infusion of 0.45% sodium chloride is not appropriate for SIADH, as this solution can further dilute sodium levels. Treatment usually involves hypertonic saline or fluid restriction.
C. Restricting fluid intake is a key management strategy for SIADH to address the fluid overload and help correct the low sodium levels. This action directly targets the root cause of the hyponatremia by reducing fluid intake.
D. Providing a diet with 2 g of sodium per day may not be sufficient or appropriate for treating SIADH-related hyponatremia. Fluid restriction is more critical in managing this condition.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has been exposed to anthrax. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to use while caring for this client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The critical care nurse is preparing to initiate an infusion of a vasopressor medication to a client in septic shock. What goal of this treatment should the nurse identify?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and a sodium level of 123 mEq/L (nl. 135-145 mEq/L). Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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