A client arrives in the emergency department with an ischemic stroke. What is the priority for the nurse to assess in relation to the administration of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) as treatment?
Current anticoagulant use
Blood pressure of 160/85 mm Hg
Complete neurologic assessment
Current treatment for client's peptic ulcer disease
The Correct Answer is A
A. Current anticoagulant use is crucial to assess before administering t-PA because combining t-PA with anticoagulants can significantly increase the risk of bleeding complications. It is essential to ensure that the client is not on medications that could interact adversely with t-PA.
B. While blood pressure is important to monitor, it is secondary to assessing anticoagulant use since high blood pressure alone does not contraindicate t-PA administration.
C. A complete neurologic assessment is important for determining the extent of the stroke but is not the immediate priority before administering t-PA.
D. While treatment for peptic ulcer disease is relevant, it is not directly related to the immediate risk factors for t-PA administration compared to anticoagulant use.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
Intravenous fluid administration is anticipated as hydration can help reduce the viscosity of sickled cells, improving circulation and potentially reducing vaso-occlusive events.
Ice packs to the affected area are nonessential and could potentially be contraindicated, as cold can cause vasoconstriction and may exacerbate pain.
Ambulation is nonessential during acute pain episodes and should be encouraged when the patient is comfortable and pain is controlled.
Hydromorphone IV for pain is anticipated because it is a stronger opioid than morphine and may be necessary if the pain is unresponsive to oral morphine sulfate.
Acetaminophen PO for pain is nonessential in this scenario as it is unlikely to provide adequate pain relief for severe vaso-occlusive pain.
Oxygen therapy is nonessential given the client's SpO2 is 95% on room air, indicating adequate oxygen saturation; however, it may be considered if there is evidence of hypoxia or respiratory distress. It is crucial to monitor the client's response to pain management interventions and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Assessing for sources of bleeding is important in clients with neutropenia, but the highest priority is preventing infection, as the client’s absolute neutrophil count is zero, indicating an extremely high risk for infection.
B. Limiting contact with infected visitors and placing the client in positive pressure isolation is crucial for preventing infections. With a neutrophil count of zero, the client is highly immunocompromised and at a significant risk of infection, making this the highest priority action.
C. Administering antiemetics and assessing nutrition and hydration are important for managing symptoms, but they do not address the immediate risk of infection associated with severe neutropenia.
D. Monitoring energy levels and implementing energy-conserving techniques are important for overall care but do not address the urgent need to protect the client from infections due to their neutropenic status.
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