A client with acute lymphocytic leukemia received induction chemotherapy. The client's absolute neutrophil count is zero, and the client is experiencing fatigue and mild nausea. Which nursing action is the highest priority?
Assess for sources of bleeding and provide pressure on wounds
Limit contact with infected visitors and place in positive pressure isolation
Administer antiemetics and assess nutrition and hydration status
Monitor energy levels and begin energy-conserving techniques
The Correct Answer is B
A. Assessing for sources of bleeding is important in clients with neutropenia, but the highest priority is preventing infection, as the client’s absolute neutrophil count is zero, indicating an extremely high risk for infection.
B. Limiting contact with infected visitors and placing the client in positive pressure isolation is crucial for preventing infections. With a neutrophil count of zero, the client is highly immunocompromised and at a significant risk of infection, making this the highest priority action.
C. Administering antiemetics and assessing nutrition and hydration are important for managing symptoms, but they do not address the immediate risk of infection associated with severe neutropenia.
D. Monitoring energy levels and implementing energy-conserving techniques are important for overall care but do not address the urgent need to protect the client from infections due to their neutropenic status.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 15-30 minutes before a meal to manage blood glucose levels effectively. This timing helps to match the peak action of the insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating.
B. Hypoglycemia from insulin lispro typically occurs within 1-3 hours of administration, not 4 hours later. Regular monitoring during this time frame is more appropriate.
C. An increase in appetite is not a direct result of insulin lispro administration and does not indicate insulin effectiveness or safety.
D. Insulin lispro and insulin glargine should not be mixed in the same syringe as they have different action profiles and pH levels, which can affect their efficacy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.
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