A 45-year-old woman has just undergone a radical hysterectomy for invasive cervical cancer. Prior to the surgery, the healthcare provider explained to the client that after the surgery an internal source of radiation would be placed near the tumor site to aid in reducing recurrence. Based on this information, the nurse knows to educate the client on which safety precaution?
The client should avoid crowded places.
The client should avoid eating fresh fruits and vegetables.
The client should maintain at least 6 feet from any visitors.
The client should avoid washing off the radiation tattoo markings.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Avoiding crowded places is a precaution related to general health and infection control but is not specifically linked to internal radiation therapy.
B. Avoiding fresh fruits and vegetables is not required for internal radiation therapy. Dietary restrictions are not typically necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider.
C. For internal radiation therapy, maintaining distance from others, typically around 6 feet, is important to minimize radiation exposure to others. This safety measure helps reduce the risk of radiation exposure to family members and visitors.
D. Radiation tattoo markings are used to ensure proper placement of the radiation source and should not be washed off. However, this precaution does not directly relate to safety around radiation exposure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
Intravenous fluid administration is anticipated as hydration can help reduce the viscosity of sickled cells, improving circulation and potentially reducing vaso-occlusive events.
Ice packs to the affected area are nonessential and could potentially be contraindicated, as cold can cause vasoconstriction and may exacerbate pain.
Ambulation is nonessential during acute pain episodes and should be encouraged when the patient is comfortable and pain is controlled.
Hydromorphone IV for pain is anticipated because it is a stronger opioid than morphine and may be necessary if the pain is unresponsive to oral morphine sulfate.
Acetaminophen PO for pain is nonessential in this scenario as it is unlikely to provide adequate pain relief for severe vaso-occlusive pain.
Oxygen therapy is nonessential given the client's SpO2 is 95% on room air, indicating adequate oxygen saturation; however, it may be considered if there is evidence of hypoxia or respiratory distress. It is crucial to monitor the client's response to pain management interventions and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.
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