The nurse is assessing a client who reports ear pain for the past 3 days that has suddenly resolved with a new onset of otorrhea. The nurse should recognize the client has manifestations of which condition?

Labrynthitis

Perforated tympanic membrane

Meniere disease

Otitis externa

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Labrynthitis is an inner ear disorder that causes vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss, but it does not typically involve otorrhea (ear discharge) or the sudden resolution of ear pain.
B. A perforated tympanic membrane is characterized by a sudden relief of ear pain when the eardrum ruptures, often accompanied by otorrhea (discharge from the ear). This condition is typically the result of an infection that increases pressure in the middle ear until the eardrum bursts.
C. Meniere disease involves episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating hearing loss, but does not usually present with ear pain followed by discharge.
D. Otitis externa, or swimmer’s ear, involves inflammation of the ear canal with symptoms like pain, itching, and discharge, but does not cause the sudden resolution of pain following the onset of otorrhea.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Epinephrine IM injection is not appropriate in this scenario, as it is typically reserved for treating anaphylactic shock. It is not used for septic shock where hypotension persists after fluid resuscitation.
B. Norepinephrine IV infusion is the correct choice. It is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock management when a fluid bolus does not adequately raise blood pressure. Norepinephrine works by constricting blood vessels, thereby increasing vascular resistance and blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine IV infusion might be considered if there is evidence of myocardial dysfunction or if additional inotropic support is necessary. However, it is not the immediate next step following fluid resuscitation when addressing persistent hypotension in septic shock.
D. Dexamethasone IV injection is not indicated for treating septic shock directly. It may be used in other contexts, such as treating adrenal insufficiency or reducing inflammation, but it does not play a role in immediate blood pressure management in septic shock.

A. Wear a face shield. B. Wear clean gloves. C. Wear sterile gloves. D. Wear an N95 respirator mask.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. A face shield is necessary when there is a risk of splashes, but not required for simply checking a pulse.
B. Clean gloves are appropriate for contact with the client or the wound, as MRSA is transmitted through direct contact. This prevents contamination while assessing the client.
C. Sterile gloves are not required for checking a pulse unless performing a sterile procedure.
D. An N95 respirator mask is used for airborne precautions, not necessary for MRSA, which is contact-transmitted.

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The nurse is assessing a client who reports ear pain for the past 3 days that has suddenly resolved with a new onset of otorrhea. The nurse should recognize the client has manifestations of which condition?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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