The nurse is assessing a client who reports ear pain for the past 3 days that has suddenly resolved with a new onset of otorrhea. The nurse should recognize the client has manifestations of which condition?
Labrynthitis
Perforated tympanic membrane
Meniere disease
Otitis externa
The Correct Answer is B
A. Labrynthitis is an inner ear disorder that causes vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss, but it does not typically involve otorrhea (ear discharge) or the sudden resolution of ear pain.
B. A perforated tympanic membrane is characterized by a sudden relief of ear pain when the eardrum ruptures, often accompanied by otorrhea (discharge from the ear). This condition is typically the result of an infection that increases pressure in the middle ear until the eardrum bursts.
C. Meniere disease involves episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating hearing loss, but does not usually present with ear pain followed by discharge.
D. Otitis externa, or swimmer’s ear, involves inflammation of the ear canal with symptoms like pain, itching, and discharge, but does not cause the sudden resolution of pain following the onset of otorrhea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The first priority in this situation is to open the client's airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver. This technique is preferred for clients with suspected spinal injuries to avoid further spinal cord damage. Ensuring the airway is open and providing oxygenation are immediate life-saving actions.
B. Checking cranial nerve function, including assessing pupils, is important for evaluating neurological status but is not the first action when the client is not breathing. Ensuring the airway is open and providing oxygenation is the priority.
C. While placing the client in a rigid cervical collar is important for stabilizing the spine and preventing further injury, it should be done after ensuring the airway is clear. The immediate concern is to address the client's non-breathing status.
D. Evaluating the client for brain injury is important for overall assessment but is secondary to addressing the immediate life threat of not breathing. Ensuring the airway is open and then stabilizing the spine is the priority.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.
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