The nurse is assessing a client who reports ear pain for the past 3 days that has suddenly resolved with a new onset of otorrhea. The nurse should recognize the client has manifestations of which condition?

Labrynthitis

Perforated tympanic membrane

Meniere disease

Otitis externa

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Labrynthitis is an inner ear disorder that causes vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss, but it does not typically involve otorrhea (ear discharge) or the sudden resolution of ear pain.
B. A perforated tympanic membrane is characterized by a sudden relief of ear pain when the eardrum ruptures, often accompanied by otorrhea (discharge from the ear). This condition is typically the result of an infection that increases pressure in the middle ear until the eardrum bursts.
C. Meniere disease involves episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating hearing loss, but does not usually present with ear pain followed by discharge.
D. Otitis externa, or swimmer’s ear, involves inflammation of the ear canal with symptoms like pain, itching, and discharge, but does not cause the sudden resolution of pain following the onset of otorrhea.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement used to treat hypothyroidism. Symptoms such as tremors, nervousness, and insomnia can indicate that the dose is too high, as these are signs of hyperthyroidism.
B. Weight loss is not a typical reason to notify the healthcare provider unless it is accompanied by other symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for symptoms of excessive thyroid hormone can be more critical.
C. Levothyroxine does not typically require monitoring for an increased risk of bleeding. This medication primarily affects thyroid hormone levels and does not have a direct impact on blood clotting.
D. Levothyroxine increases, rather than decreases, thyroid hormone levels. It is used to replace or supplement thyroid hormone in the case of hypothyroidism, not to decrease thyroid hormone production.

A. Positive Western blot test B. CD4-T-cell count 505 cells/mm³ (nl. 500-1500 cells/mm³) C. Platelets 115,000/mm³ (nl. 140,000-400,000/mm³) D. White blood cell (WBC) count 800/mm³ (nl. 5000-10,000/mm³)

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A positive Western blot test confirms the diagnosis of HIV, but it is not concerning once the diagnosis has been established.
B. A CD4-T-cell count of 505 cells/mm³ is low but not critically low. While it does indicate immunosuppression, it is not the most concerning value presented.
C. A platelet count of 115,000/mm³ is lower than normal and may indicate a risk for bleeding, but it is not as concerning as a critically low white blood cell count.
D. A WBC count of 800/mm³ is severely low and indicates a high risk for infection, which is particularly concerning in a client with HIV, as it suggests significant immunosuppression and vulnerability to opportunistic infections.

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The nurse is assessing a client who reports ear pain for the past 3 days that has suddenly resolved with a new onset of otorrhea. The nurse should recognize the client has manifestations of which condition?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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