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A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client asks why he has this condition. What is the nurse's best answer?

"DKA happens when the body's cells can't respond appropriately to the insulin being produced and blood glucose levels rise."

"DKA is a metabolic disorder generally resulting from getting sick while having diabetes mellitus type 2."

"DKA can only be acquired in a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 who experiences septic shock."

"DKA results from the complete absence of insulin resulting from poorly controlled or undiagnosed diabetes mellitus type 1."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. DKA occurs due to a significant deficiency of insulin rather than issues with cell response to insulin. The condition leads to high blood glucose and ketone production because there is not enough insulin to regulate glucose levels effectively.
B. DKA is primarily associated with diabetes mellitus type 1, not type 2. It can occur due to a lack of insulin and is not solely caused by illness, although illness can exacerbate it.
C. DKA is not limited to clients with diabetes mellitus type 1 who experience septic shock. It can occur in anyone with type 1 diabetes due to severe insulin deficiency, though septic shock can complicate the condition.
D. DKA results from a complete absence of insulin, which is characteristic of poorly controlled or undiagnosed diabetes mellitus type 1. This insulin deficiency leads to elevated blood glucose levels and ketone formation.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Assessing for sources of bleeding is important in clients with neutropenia, but the highest priority is preventing infection, as the client’s absolute neutrophil count is zero, indicating an extremely high risk for infection.
B. Limiting contact with infected visitors and placing the client in positive pressure isolation is crucial for preventing infections. With a neutrophil count of zero, the client is highly immunocompromised and at a significant risk of infection, making this the highest priority action.
C. Administering antiemetics and assessing nutrition and hydration are important for managing symptoms, but they do not address the immediate risk of infection associated with severe neutropenia.
D. Monitoring energy levels and implementing energy-conserving techniques are important for overall care but do not address the urgent need to protect the client from infections due to their neutropenic status.

A. Place the client on droplet precautions. B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. C. Place the client in a private room D. Check the client's rectal temperature once daily. E. Rinse the client's mouth with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"C"},"E":{"answers":"A"}}

Explanation

Placing the client on droplet precautions is anticipated as it is a standard practice to prevent infection, especially in immunocompromised patients like those undergoing chemotherapy.

A private room is also anticipated to reduce the risk of infection and provide a controlled environment for the patient's comfort and monitoring.

The insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter may be nonessential unless there is a specific indication, such as urinary retention or close monitoring of output in a critically ill patient, as it can increase the risk of urinary tract infections.

Checking the client's rectal temperature once daily could be contraindicated due to the risk of causing trauma or bleeding, especially considering the client's decreased platelet count, which could lead to increased bleeding risk.

Lastly, rinsing the client's mouth with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours is anticipated to help manage the sore mouth, a common side effect of chemotherapy, and to maintain oral hygiene, which is crucial in preventing infections in immunocompromised patients.

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A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client asks why he has this condition. What is the nurse's best answer?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a 66-year-old client who has a new diagnosis of lung cancer. Exhibits For each potential healthcare provider's prescription at 4 weeks, click to specify if the prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"C"},"E":{"answers":"A"}}

Explanation

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