A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client asks why he has this condition. What is the nurse's best answer?
"DKA happens when the body's cells can't respond appropriately to the insulin being produced and blood glucose levels rise."
"DKA is a metabolic disorder generally resulting from getting sick while having diabetes mellitus type 2."
"DKA can only be acquired in a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 who experiences septic shock."
"DKA results from the complete absence of insulin resulting from poorly controlled or undiagnosed diabetes mellitus type 1."
The Correct Answer is D
A. DKA occurs due to a significant deficiency of insulin rather than issues with cell response to insulin. The condition leads to high blood glucose and ketone production because there is not enough insulin to regulate glucose levels effectively.
B. DKA is primarily associated with diabetes mellitus type 1, not type 2. It can occur due to a lack of insulin and is not solely caused by illness, although illness can exacerbate it.
C. DKA is not limited to clients with diabetes mellitus type 1 who experience septic shock. It can occur in anyone with type 1 diabetes due to severe insulin deficiency, though septic shock can complicate the condition.
D. DKA results from a complete absence of insulin, which is characteristic of poorly controlled or undiagnosed diabetes mellitus type 1. This insulin deficiency leads to elevated blood glucose levels and ketone formation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Corticosteroids are not typically associated with causing thrombocytopenia. Their primary effects are on the immune system and metabolism.
B. Corticosteroids more commonly cause hypertension due to fluid retention and increased sensitivity to vasoconstrictors, rather than hypotension.
C. Corticosteroids cause immunosuppression by inhibiting the function of various immune cells and reducing the production of inflammatory cytokines. This increases the risk of infections.
D. Anemia is not a direct effect of corticosteroid use. The medication's impact on the bone marrow typically affects the white blood cell count, particularly in causing leukocytosis, rather than leading to anemia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Malignant hypertension poses risks for other conditions but is not the primary risk factor for cardiogenic shock.
B. A stroke does not directly lead to cardiogenic shock, though it may have other significant complications.
C. Acute kidney injury affects renal function but is not the primary risk for cardiogenic shock.
D. A myocardial infarction (MI) can impair the heart's pumping ability, leading to cardiogenic shock. This is due to the damage to heart muscle that can severely impact cardiac output and blood pressure.
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