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A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client asks why he has this condition. What is the nurse's best answer?

"DKA happens when the body's cells can't respond appropriately to the insulin being produced and blood glucose levels rise."

"DKA is a metabolic disorder generally resulting from getting sick while having diabetes mellitus type 2."

"DKA can only be acquired in a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 who experiences septic shock."

"DKA results from the complete absence of insulin resulting from poorly controlled or undiagnosed diabetes mellitus type 1."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. DKA occurs due to a significant deficiency of insulin rather than issues with cell response to insulin. The condition leads to high blood glucose and ketone production because there is not enough insulin to regulate glucose levels effectively.
B. DKA is primarily associated with diabetes mellitus type 1, not type 2. It can occur due to a lack of insulin and is not solely caused by illness, although illness can exacerbate it.
C. DKA is not limited to clients with diabetes mellitus type 1 who experience septic shock. It can occur in anyone with type 1 diabetes due to severe insulin deficiency, though septic shock can complicate the condition.
D. DKA results from a complete absence of insulin, which is characteristic of poorly controlled or undiagnosed diabetes mellitus type 1. This insulin deficiency leads to elevated blood glucose levels and ketone formation.

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Correct Answer is ["33"]

Explanation

To calculate the infusion rate, we'll use the following formula:

Infusion rate (gtt/min) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time (min)) ) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)

First, calculate the total volume to be infused:

100 mL / 30 min = 3.33 mL/min

Then, multiply the volume per minute by the drop factor:

3.33 mL/min x 10 gtt/mL = 33.3 gtt/min

Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min.

A. Instruct the client to take pain-relieving medications. B. Collect a basic metabolic panel (BMP) specimen from the client. C. Obtain information about the client's recent sexual experiences. D. Inform the client about pelvic ultrasound procedure.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Pain-relieving medications may be appropriate for symptom management but do not address the need for diagnosis or treatment of gonorrhea exposure.
B. A basic metabolic panel (BMP) is not relevant to the diagnosis or management of gonorrhea. Testing for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) requires specific diagnostic tests.
C. Obtaining information about the client's recent sexual experiences is crucial for assessing risk factors, guiding testing, and determining appropriate treatment for gonorrhea.
D. A pelvic ultrasound is not typically the initial step in managing gonorrhea exposure. It might be used to assess complications but is not relevant for initial assessment or treatment.

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A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client asks why he has this condition. What is the nurse's best answer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["33"]

Explanation

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a female client who was exposed to gonorrhea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A diabetes nurse educator is discussing "sick day rules" with a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 1. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

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