A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client asks why he has this condition. What is the nurse's best answer?
"DKA happens when the body's cells can't respond appropriately to the insulin being produced and blood glucose levels rise."
"DKA is a metabolic disorder generally resulting from getting sick while having diabetes mellitus type 2."
"DKA can only be acquired in a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 who experiences septic shock."
"DKA results from the complete absence of insulin resulting from poorly controlled or undiagnosed diabetes mellitus type 1."
The Correct Answer is D
A. DKA occurs due to a significant deficiency of insulin rather than issues with cell response to insulin. The condition leads to high blood glucose and ketone production because there is not enough insulin to regulate glucose levels effectively.
B. DKA is primarily associated with diabetes mellitus type 1, not type 2. It can occur due to a lack of insulin and is not solely caused by illness, although illness can exacerbate it.
C. DKA is not limited to clients with diabetes mellitus type 1 who experience septic shock. It can occur in anyone with type 1 diabetes due to severe insulin deficiency, though septic shock can complicate the condition.
D. DKA results from a complete absence of insulin, which is characteristic of poorly controlled or undiagnosed diabetes mellitus type 1. This insulin deficiency leads to elevated blood glucose levels and ketone formation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Restricting sodium intake is essential in managing ascites and edema in cirrhosis, but it does not directly reduce ammonia levels. Sodium restriction is more related to fluid management rather than ammonia reduction.
B. Administering vitamin K may be necessary for correcting coagulation issues in liver disease, but it does not address the elevated ammonia levels causing encephalopathy.
C. Reducing protein intake is crucial for decreasing ammonia production. In clients with hepatic encephalopathy, proteins are broken down into ammonia, which the impaired liver cannot detoxify effectively, leading to worsened symptoms. Therefore, reducing dietary protein can help lower ammonia levels.
D. Administering diuretics is used to manage fluid retention and ascites in cirrhosis, but it does not directly impact ammonia levels. Diuretics are not the primary intervention for hepatic encephalopathy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.
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