A nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver failure who tells the nurse he is experiencing spontaneous episodes of bleeding and has noted increased areas of bruising on his arms. The nurse suspects the client has a deficiency in which of the following vitamins?
Thiamine
Vitamin C
Vitamin K
Folic acid
The Correct Answer is C
A. Thiamine deficiency is often associated with neurological symptoms, such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, rather than spontaneous bleeding or bruising. Thiamine does not directly impact the coagulation process.
B. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to scurvy, which includes symptoms such as bleeding gums and poor wound healing. However, it is not typically associated with the spontaneous bleeding and bruising seen in chronic liver failure.
C. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors produced by the liver. In chronic liver failure, the liver's ability to produce these factors is impaired, leading to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising due to vitamin K deficiency.
D. Folic acid deficiency is more commonly linked to anemia and certain neurological issues, but it does not cause spontaneous bleeding or bruising. It does not directly affect coagulation factors as vitamin K does.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Droplet precautions are not appropriate for anthrax exposure. Precautions would be based on the specific form of anthrax (cutaneous, inhalation, or gastrointestinal).
B. Anthrax is treated with antibiotics, not antiviral therapy. Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline is typically used for prophylaxis and treatment.
C. While assessing for hemorrhage might be relevant in cases of severe anthrax, it is more critical initially to focus on respiratory assessment, particularly for inhalation anthrax.
D. Assessing the respiratory system is crucial for clients exposed to anthrax, particularly inhalation anthrax, as it can cause severe respiratory symptoms and complications. Prompt assessment is essential for early detection and treatment of respiratory distress.
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