A client on the oncology unit is receiving a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. For which symptom should the nurse assess in clients at risk for thrombocytopenia?
Petechiae
Decreased white blood cell count
Increased fatigue
Unexplained bone pain
The Correct Answer is A
A. Petechiae are small, red or purple spots on the skin that indicate bleeding under the skin and are a classic sign of thrombocytopenia, a condition characterized by a low platelet count.
B. A decreased white blood cell count is more indicative of leukopenia, not thrombocytopenia. Thrombocytopenia specifically affects platelet counts.
C. Increased fatigue can be a symptom of many conditions but is not specific to thrombocytopenia. It may occur due to anemia or other side effects of chemotherapy.
D. Unexplained bone pain is not a typical symptom of thrombocytopenia. It might be related to other conditions or side effects but is not specific to low platelet counts.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Current anticoagulant use is crucial to assess before administering t-PA because combining t-PA with anticoagulants can significantly increase the risk of bleeding complications. It is essential to ensure that the client is not on medications that could interact adversely with t-PA.
B. While blood pressure is important to monitor, it is secondary to assessing anticoagulant use since high blood pressure alone does not contraindicate t-PA administration.
C. A complete neurologic assessment is important for determining the extent of the stroke but is not the immediate priority before administering t-PA.
D. While treatment for peptic ulcer disease is relevant, it is not directly related to the immediate risk factors for t-PA administration compared to anticoagulant use.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Desmopressin acetate is used to treat diabetes insipidus, not SIADH. In SIADH, there is excessive antidiuretic hormone causing fluid retention and dilutional hyponatremia, so this medication would not be appropriate.
B. Maintaining an IV infusion of 0.45% sodium chloride is not appropriate for SIADH, as this solution can further dilute sodium levels. Treatment usually involves hypertonic saline or fluid restriction.
C. Restricting fluid intake is a key management strategy for SIADH to address the fluid overload and help correct the low sodium levels. This action directly targets the root cause of the hyponatremia by reducing fluid intake.
D. Providing a diet with 2 g of sodium per day may not be sufficient or appropriate for treating SIADH-related hyponatremia. Fluid restriction is more critical in managing this condition.
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