An 82-year-old client who sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle crash while on warfarin therapy is admitted for observation. The nurse is providing teaching regarding the client's diagnosis of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of teaching?
"I developed a hematoma because an artery burst in my brain when my head hit the windshield."
"I developed a bleed in my brain because my platelets were too high."
"I developed a hematoma because I take a blood thinner and my head hit the windshield."
"I developed a hematoma because my bleeding times were too low and I hit my head."
The Correct Answer is C
A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 13 to 10 indicates a significant change in consciousness and may suggest worsening of the brain injury. This is a critical sign that requires immediate reporting and evaluation.
B. Diplopia (double vision) can be a concerning symptom, but it is not as immediately critical as a significant change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score. It still warrants attention but may not be the highest priority.
C. Ataxia (lack of voluntary coordination of muscle movements) is a serious symptom that could indicate worsening of the brain injury but is not as immediately critical as a significant change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score.
D. A drop in heart rate from 76 to 70/min is generally not significant in the context of mild TBI. Changes in heart rate are less critical compared to changes in the level of consciousness.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Increasing fluid intake is not recommended, as clients with Cushing disease often have fluid retention.
B. Decreasing protein intake is not recommended because muscle wasting is a concern in Cushing disease, and adequate protein is necessary to maintain muscle mass.
C. Decreasing carbohydrate intake is recommended because Cushing disease can cause hyperglycemia, and reducing carbohydrates can help manage blood glucose levels.
D. Limiting potassium-rich foods is not advisable as Cushing disease can lead to hypokalemia, and clients may need to increase their potassium intake.
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