An 82-year-old client who sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle crash while on warfarin therapy is admitted for observation. The nurse is providing teaching regarding the client's diagnosis of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of teaching?
"I developed a hematoma because an artery burst in my brain when my head hit the windshield."
"I developed a bleed in my brain because my platelets were too high."
"I developed a hematoma because I take a blood thinner and my head hit the windshield."
"I developed a hematoma because my bleeding times were too low and I hit my head."
The Correct Answer is C
A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Assessing the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is important to monitor the effectiveness of treatment and manage bleeding risk. Hemophilia A is characterized by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, which prolongs the aPTT.
A. Applying heated compresses is not recommended for hemarthrosis; instead, cold compresses should be used to reduce bleeding and swelling.
C. Low-dose aspirin is contraindicated for clients with hemophilia because it can further inhibit platelet function and increase bleeding risk.
D. Autologous blood transfusion is not typically required for hemophilia; factor replacement therapy is the standard treatment.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Experiencing depression following a disaster is a common response. Survivors often experience a range of emotional responses, including depression, due to the trauma and loss associated with the event.
A. The depression is more likely related to the traumatic event rather than a pre-existing condition.
C. While survivors may struggle with feelings of guilt or disbelief, the focus should be on understanding the depression as a response to the trauma experienced.
D. Although feelings of guilt may be present, it is more pertinent to address the depression as a common mental health issue following a traumatic event.
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