An 82-year-old client who sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle crash while on warfarin therapy is admitted for observation. The nurse is providing teaching regarding the client's diagnosis of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of teaching?
"I developed a hematoma because an artery burst in my brain when my head hit the windshield."
"I developed a bleed in my brain because my platelets were too high."
"I developed a hematoma because I take a blood thinner and my head hit the windshield."
"I developed a hematoma because my bleeding times were too low and I hit my head."
The Correct Answer is C
A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Surgical intervention is the most common and effective treatment for age-related cataracts. Cataract surgery involves the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial intraocular lens, which can significantly improve vision.
B. Corticosteroid eye drops are not used to treat cataracts; they are generally prescribed for reducing inflammation in various eye conditions but do not address the lens opacity caused by cataracts.
C. Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium have been studied for their potential role in slowing the progression of cataracts, but they are not considered a primary treatment once cataracts have developed to the point of affecting vision.
D. Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses may help improve vision temporarily in the early stages of cataracts, but they do not treat the underlying cause and are not effective in advanced cases. Surgery remains the definitive treatment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A higher fluid intake, ideally 2 to 3 liters per day, is typically recommended to help flush uric acid from the body and prevent gout attacks, not just 1 to 1.5 L.
B. Aspirin is not recommended for gout pain management; nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or corticosteroids are more appropriate.
C. Focusing on losing weight to achieve a normal BMI is important for managing gout, as obesity is a risk factor for gout and can exacerbate symptoms. Weight loss can help reduce uric acid levels and improve overall management of the condition.
D. Allopurinol is used for long-term management to reduce uric acid levels and prevent attacks, but it is not used during acute attacks. Colchicine or NSAIDs are more appropriate for acute gout attacks.
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