An 82-year-old client who sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle crash while on warfarin therapy is admitted for observation. The nurse is providing teaching regarding the client's diagnosis of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of teaching?

"I developed a hematoma because an artery burst in my brain when my head hit the windshield."

"I developed a bleed in my brain because my platelets were too high."

"I developed a hematoma because I take a blood thinner and my head hit the windshield."

"I developed a hematoma because my bleeding times were too low and I hit my head."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A,B"},"B":{"answers":"A,B"},"C":{"answers":"A,B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A,B"}}

Explanation

A high white blood cell (WBC) count in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is more commonly associated with bacterial meningitis, characterized by a high neutrophil count, low glucose, and high protein levels. it is also seen in encephalitis and reflects the individual cell lines that are affected.

Muscle weakness and altered levels of consciousness can occur in both conditions but are more prominent in encephalitis, which often presents with focal neurological deficits and seizures. The

Kernig sign, a classical sign of meningitis, is a physical examination finding that indicates irritation of the meninges and supports a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis when positive.

An elevated body temperature is common in bacterial meningitis, but it is not exclusive and can be observed in encephalitis as well.

A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake. B. Wear a mask when caring for the client. C. Prepare to administer an antibiotic to the client. D. Place the client in a private room. E. Place the client on contact precautions.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake: This is important to prevent dehydration, which can be a complication of influenza.
B. Wear a mask when caring for the client: Influenza is a highly contagious virus, and wearing a mask can help prevent the spread of infection.
C. Prepare to administer an antibiotic to the client: Antibiotics are not typically used to treat influenza, which is a viral infection. However, if a bacterial infection develops as a complication, antibiotics may be necessary.
D. Place the client in a private room: Isolating the client in a private room can help prevent the spread of influenza to other patients and healthcare workers.
E. Place the client on contact precautions: Influenza is primarily spread through respiratory droplets, so droplet precautions are appropriate. Contact precautions are not necessary for influenza.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A,B"},"B":{"answers":"A,B"},"C":{"answers":"A,B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A,B"}}

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a 62-year-old client with manifestations of an infection. Exhibits Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

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