An 82-year-old client who sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle crash while on warfarin therapy is admitted for observation. The nurse is providing teaching regarding the client's diagnosis of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of teaching?
"I developed a hematoma because an artery burst in my brain when my head hit the windshield."
"I developed a bleed in my brain because my platelets were too high."
"I developed a hematoma because I take a blood thinner and my head hit the windshield."
"I developed a hematoma because my bleeding times were too low and I hit my head."
The Correct Answer is C
A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B","dropdown-group-3":"E"}
Explanation
Pneumonia: The client is at risk for pneumonia due to decreased lung expansion and increased risk of aspiration, especially after abdominal surgery.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT): The client is at risk for DVT due to prolonged immobility and the increased risk of blood clots associated with surgery.
Urinary retention: The Foley catheter may interfere with the client's ability to void normally, increasing the risk of urinary retention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Placing the client on a ventilator to remove CO2 is not directly related to preventing the development of MODS. While ventilation might be necessary for respiratory support, it does not address the systemic infection and inflammation that contribute to MODS.
B. Advising the client to use their call light to reduce the risk of falls is important for general safety but does not address the critical factors involved in preventing MODS in the context of SIRS.
C. Providing a high protein diet can support overall nutrition and healing but is not the primary intervention for preventing MODS. Managing the infection and maintaining hemodynamic stability are more critical.
D. Administering antibiotics to treat the bacterial infection and maintaining a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of at least 65 mm Hg are essential interventions. Effective antibiotic therapy addresses the infection, and maintaining MAP ensures adequate organ perfusion, both of which help prevent the progression to MODS.
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