An 82-year-old client who sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle crash while on warfarin therapy is admitted for observation. The nurse is providing teaching regarding the client's diagnosis of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of teaching?
"I developed a hematoma because an artery burst in my brain when my head hit the windshield."
"I developed a bleed in my brain because my platelets were too high."
"I developed a hematoma because I take a blood thinner and my head hit the windshield."
"I developed a hematoma because my bleeding times were too low and I hit my head."
The Correct Answer is C
A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The time of the burn helps in understanding how long the client has been exposed and may influence the assessment of burn progression, but it does not directly determine the severity.
B. The depth of the burn is the primary factor in assessing burn severity. It determines the level of tissue damage and guides treatment decisions. Depth classifications include superficial, partial-thickness, and full-thickness burns.
C. The cause of the burn is important for treatment considerations and understanding the mechanism of injury but does not impact the assessment of burn severity.
D. The location of the burn affects the potential for complications and functional impairment but is secondary to the depth in determining overall burn severity.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A leg and ankle fracture is serious but typically not life-threatening compared to issues involving airway obstruction or severe bleeding.
B. Flank pain radiating to the groin may indicate a kidney stone or other condition, but it is less urgent than airway obstruction.
C. A raised red rash on the abdomen could be a sign of a less urgent condition, such as a viral infection or allergic reaction, and does not require immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress.
D. Expiratory stridor indicates upper airway obstruction or severe respiratory distress, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. Stridor suggests possible airway compromise, which needs to be addressed urgently to prevent respiratory failure.
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