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A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g by intermittent intravenous (IV) bolus over 30 minutes. Available is cefazolin 1 g in 100 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W). The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero. Only enter numbers and decimals. Do not enter any letters in your answer.)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["33"]

To calculate the infusion rate, we'll use the following formula:

Infusion rate (gtt/min) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time (min)) ) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)

First, calculate the total volume to be infused:

100 mL / 30 min = 3.33 mL/min

Then, multiply the volume per minute by the drop factor:

3.33 mL/min x 10 gtt/mL = 33.3 gtt/min

Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A positive Western blot test confirms the diagnosis of HIV, but it is not concerning once the diagnosis has been established.
B. A CD4-T-cell count of 505 cells/mm³ is low but not critically low. While it does indicate immunosuppression, it is not the most concerning value presented.
C. A platelet count of 115,000/mm³ is lower than normal and may indicate a risk for bleeding, but it is not as concerning as a critically low white blood cell count.
D. A WBC count of 800/mm³ is severely low and indicates a high risk for infection, which is particularly concerning in a client with HIV, as it suggests significant immunosuppression and vulnerability to opportunistic infections.

A. Place the client on protective isolation. B. Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism. C. Initiate droplet precautions. D. Check the client's most recent platelet level.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Protective isolation is not directly related to the symptoms of ecchymoses and petechiae but is more relevant for preventing infections in immunocompromised clients.
B. Measures to prevent venous thromboembolism are not the immediate concern given the bleeding symptoms; instead, managing platelet levels and bleeding risks is more critical.
C. Droplet precautions are not indicated based on the described symptoms, which are more related to bleeding disorders rather than infectious conditions requiring droplet precautions.
D. Checking the client's most recent platelet level is the most appropriate action because ecchymoses and petechiae are signs of potential thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), which is common in leukemia. Monitoring platelet levels will help determine if there is a need for interventions to address bleeding risks.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoses on the client's sacral area and petechiae on the forearms. Based on the most recent assessment findings, the nurse should perform which action?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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