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A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g by intermittent intravenous (IV) bolus over 30 minutes. Available is cefazolin 1 g in 100 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W). The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero. Only enter numbers and decimals. Do not enter any letters in your answer.)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["33"]

To calculate the infusion rate, we'll use the following formula:

Infusion rate (gtt/min) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time (min)) ) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)

First, calculate the total volume to be infused:

100 mL / 30 min = 3.33 mL/min

Then, multiply the volume per minute by the drop factor:

3.33 mL/min x 10 gtt/mL = 33.3 gtt/min

Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

A. The fingerstick blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL at 1130 indicates hypoglycemia, which requires immediate attention to prevent further complications such as loss of consciousness or severe symptoms.
B. The client's report of shakiness, hunger, and cool, diaphoretic skin are signs of hypoglycemia, especially given the low blood glucose level. This requires prompt intervention to manage the blood glucose level.
C. The temperature of 37.8 °C (100 °F) is slightly elevated but does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other symptoms of infection or significant changes.
D. The elevated heart rate of 118/min could indicate an underlying issue such as dehydration, hypoglycemia, or infection. It requires further evaluation in the context of other findings.
E. The SpO2 of 95% on room air is within an acceptable range and does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other signs of respiratory distress or worsening condition.
F. The HbA1c of 8.01% reflects long-term glucose control but is not an immediate concern for follow-up in the acute setting. It is important for overall management but not an urgent issue for this particular scenario.

A. Surgical intervention B. Corticosteroid eye drops C. Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium D. Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Surgical intervention is the most common and effective treatment for age-related cataracts. Cataract surgery involves the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial intraocular lens, which can significantly improve vision.
B. Corticosteroid eye drops are not used to treat cataracts; they are generally prescribed for reducing inflammation in various eye conditions but do not address the lens opacity caused by cataracts.
C. Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium have been studied for their potential role in slowing the progression of cataracts, but they are not considered a primary treatment once cataracts have developed to the point of affecting vision.
D. Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses may help improve vision temporarily in the early stages of cataracts, but they do not treat the underlying cause and are not effective in advanced cases. Surgery remains the definitive treatment.

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