A nurse witnesses a motor vehicle crash and finds a client who is not breathing. The nurse suspects the client has a cervical vertebrae fracture. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Open the client's airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver to provide oxygenation
Check the client's cranial nerve function by assessing pupils equal, round, reactive to light, and accommodation (PERRLA)
Place the client in a rigid cervical collar
Evaluate the client for brain injury
The Correct Answer is A
A. The first priority in this situation is to open the client's airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver. This technique is preferred for clients with suspected spinal injuries to avoid further spinal cord damage. Ensuring the airway is open and providing oxygenation are immediate life-saving actions.
B. Checking cranial nerve function, including assessing pupils, is important for evaluating neurological status but is not the first action when the client is not breathing. Ensuring the airway is open and providing oxygenation is the priority.
C. While placing the client in a rigid cervical collar is important for stabilizing the spine and preventing further injury, it should be done after ensuring the airway is clear. The immediate concern is to address the client's non-breathing status.
D. Evaluating the client for brain injury is important for overall assessment but is secondary to addressing the immediate life threat of not breathing. Ensuring the airway is open and then stabilizing the spine is the priority.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A. The fingerstick blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL at 1130 indicates hypoglycemia, which requires immediate attention to prevent further complications such as loss of consciousness or severe symptoms.
B. The client's report of shakiness, hunger, and cool, diaphoretic skin are signs of hypoglycemia, especially given the low blood glucose level. This requires prompt intervention to manage the blood glucose level.
C. The temperature of 37.8 °C (100 °F) is slightly elevated but does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other symptoms of infection or significant changes.
D. The elevated heart rate of 118/min could indicate an underlying issue such as dehydration, hypoglycemia, or infection. It requires further evaluation in the context of other findings.
E. The SpO2 of 95% on room air is within an acceptable range and does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other signs of respiratory distress or worsening condition.
F. The HbA1c of 8.01% reflects long-term glucose control but is not an immediate concern for follow-up in the acute setting. It is important for overall management but not an urgent issue for this particular scenario.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Assessing the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is important to monitor the effectiveness of treatment and manage bleeding risk. Hemophilia A is characterized by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, which prolongs the aPTT.
A. Applying heated compresses is not recommended for hemarthrosis; instead, cold compresses should be used to reduce bleeding and swelling.
C. Low-dose aspirin is contraindicated for clients with hemophilia because it can further inhibit platelet function and increase bleeding risk.
D. Autologous blood transfusion is not typically required for hemophilia; factor replacement therapy is the standard treatment.
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