A nurse is caring for a client who has a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse immediately report to the provider?

A drop in heart rate from 74 to 68/min.

A change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 10.

Headache.

Diplopia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a drop in heart rate from 74 to 68/min is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. A mild decrease in heart rate can be normal or due to other factors such as medication, sleep, or relaxation. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure.

Choice B reason: This is the correct answer because a change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 10 is a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool that measures the level of consciousness based on eye-opening, verbal response, and motor responses. A score of 14 indicates mild impairment, while a score of 10 indicates moderate impairment. A decrease in score can indicate deterioration of neurological status and increased intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the headache is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Headache is a common symptom of mild TBI and can be managed with analgesics, rest, and hydration. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is severe, persistent, or accompanied by other signs such as vomiting, confusion, or seizures.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because diplopia is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Diplopia means double vision and can be caused by damage to cranial nerves or eye muscles due to TBI. It can be treated with eye patches, glasses, or surgery. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, loss of vision, or eye pain.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason: The test does not assess for sun protection factor, but rather for contact dermatitis. Sun protection factor is a measure of how well a sunscreen protects the skin from ultraviolet radiation, which can cause sunburn and skin damage.

Choice B Reason: The test is not inconclusive, but rather positive for some allergens and negative for others. The test involves applying small patches of different substances to the skin and observing for any reactions after 48 hours.

Choice C Reason: This is the correct choice. The presence of erythema indicates you are allergic to the allergen, as it shows inflammation and irritation of the skin due to an immune response. Erythema is redness of the skin that can be accompanied by itching, swelling, or blisters.

Choice D Reason: The areas that did not turn red do not indicate low risk for skin cancer, but rather no reaction to the allergen. Skin cancer is a malignant growth of abnormal cells in the skin that can be caused by various factors, such as genetic mutations, exposure to carcinogens, or immunosuppression.

A. To administer medications and electrolytes B. To dilate the stomach as a presurgical preparation C. You will not be able to eat for several days D. To remove secretions and decompress your stomach

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because administering medications and electrolytes is not the primary purpose of inserting a nasogastric tube for a client with acute peritonitis. Medications and electrolytes can be given through other routes, such as IV or oral.

Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because dilating the stomach as a presurgical preparation is not a relevant Reason for inserting a nasogastric tube for a client with acute peritonitis. Dilating the stomach may be done before some types of gastric surgery, but it does not apply to peritonitis.

Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because stating that you will not be able to eat for several days is not an adequate explanation for inserting a nasogastric tube for a client with acute peritonitis. This statement does not address the rationale or the benefits of the procedure. It may also cause anxiety and resentment in the client.

Choice D Reason: This is the correct choice because removing secretions and decompressing the stomach is the main Reason for inserting a nasogastric tube for a client with acute peritonitis. Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum, the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. It can cause abdominal distension, pain, nausea, and vomiting. A nasogastric tube can suction out the gastric contents and reduce the pressure and irritation in the abdomen.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse immediately report to the provider?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has a patch test performed with the following results. Which of the following is the best response the nurse will offer the client regarding the observations from the test?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse caring for a client with acute peritonitis reviews the physician's orders. The orders include an NPO diet, insertion of a nasogastric tube set to low intermittent suction, and IV fluids at 50 mL per hour. When asked why he will need the NG tube, what is the nurse's best reply?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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