A nurse is caring for a client who has a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse immediately report to the provider?
A drop in heart rate from 74 to 68/min.
A change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 10.
Headache.
Diplopia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a drop in heart rate from 74 to 68/min is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. A mild decrease in heart rate can be normal or due to other factors such as medication, sleep, or relaxation. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure.
Choice B reason: This is the correct answer because a change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 10 is a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool that measures the level of consciousness based on eye-opening, verbal response, and motor responses. A score of 14 indicates mild impairment, while a score of 10 indicates moderate impairment. A decrease in score can indicate deterioration of neurological status and increased intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the headache is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Headache is a common symptom of mild TBI and can be managed with analgesics, rest, and hydration. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is severe, persistent, or accompanied by other signs such as vomiting, confusion, or seizures.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because diplopia is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Diplopia means double vision and can be caused by damage to cranial nerves or eye muscles due to TBI. It can be treated with eye patches, glasses, or surgery. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, loss of vision, or eye pain.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Requesting the charge nurse put the client on the surgery schedule is not the best first action, as it does not address the urgency of the situation. The client may have a perforated appendix, which is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate intervention.
Choice B Reason: Documenting the WBC count from the morning labs is not the best first action, as it does not address the client's current condition. The WBC count may be elevated due to inflammation or infection, but it does not indicate the severity of the problem.
Choice C Reason: This is the correct choice. Notifying the healthcare provider is the best first action, as it alerts them to the possibility of a perforated appendix and allows them to order appropriate tests and treatments.
Choice D Reason: Providing an antiemetic is not the best first action, as it does not address the underlying cause of the vomiting. The client may have peritonitis, which is inflammation of the abdominal cavity due to leakage of intestinal contents. An antiemetic may mask this symptom and delay diagnosis and treatment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is the correct choice because a complete spinal cord injury is a condition where there is no motor or sensory function below the level of injury. The client will have paralysis of all four limbs (quadriplegia) and loss of bladder, bowel, and sexual function. The client will also have impaired thermoregulation, breathing, and blood pressure. The client will need 24-hour a day care to assist with mobility, hygiene, elimination, nutrition, and prevention of complications.
Choice B) Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is able to assist with transfer and perform self-care has a partial spinal cord injury, not a complete one. A partial spinal cord injury is a condition where there is some motor or sensory function below the level of injury. The degree of impairment depends on the extent and location of the damage.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is able to roll over independently has a lower spinal cord injury, not a complete one. A lower spinal cord injury is a condition where there is damage to the lumbar or sacral segments of the spinal cord. The client will have paralysis of the lower limbs (paraplegia) and some loss of bladder, bowel, and sexual function. The client will still have some control over the upper limbs and trunk.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is able to drive an electric wheelchair has an upper spinal cord injury, not a complete one. An upper spinal cord injury is a condition where there is damage to the cervical or thoracic segments of the spinal cord. The client will have paralysis of all four limbs (quadriplegia) and loss of bladder, bowel, and sexual function. However, the client may still have some movement or sensation in the shoulders, arms, or hands.
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