A nurse is caring for a client who has a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse immediately report to the provider?
A drop in heart rate from 74 to 68/min.
A change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 10.
Headache.
Diplopia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a drop in heart rate from 74 to 68/min is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. A mild decrease in heart rate can be normal or due to other factors such as medication, sleep, or relaxation. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure.
Choice B reason: This is the correct answer because a change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 10 is a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool that measures the level of consciousness based on eye-opening, verbal response, and motor responses. A score of 14 indicates mild impairment, while a score of 10 indicates moderate impairment. A decrease in score can indicate deterioration of neurological status and increased intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the headache is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Headache is a common symptom of mild TBI and can be managed with analgesics, rest, and hydration. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is severe, persistent, or accompanied by other signs such as vomiting, confusion, or seizures.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because diplopia is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Diplopia means double vision and can be caused by damage to cranial nerves or eye muscles due to TBI. It can be treated with eye patches, glasses, or surgery. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, loss of vision, or eye pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because it is necessary to remove contact lenses before administering medications. Contact lenses can absorb or interfere with the absorption of eye drops and cause irritation or infection. The nurse should instruct the client to remove contact lenses before applying eye drops and wait at least 15 minutes before reinserting them.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because administering the medications by touching the tip of the dropper to the sclera of the eye can cause contamination or injury. The sclera is the white part of the eye that covers most of the eyeball. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid touching the tip of the dropper to any part of the eye or eyelid and hold it about 1 cm above the lower eyelid.
Choice C reason: This is correct because administering the medications 5 min apart can prevent dilution or washout of one medication by another. Timolol and pilocarpine are two different types of eye drops that are used to treat open-angle glaucoma, which is a condition that causes increased pressure inside the eye and damage to the optic nerve. Timolol is a beta-blocker that reduces the production of fluid in the eye, and pilocarpine is a cholinergic agent that increases the drainage of fluid from the eye. The nurse should instruct the client to apply one drop of each medication in the affected eye(s) and wait at least 5 minutes between each medication.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because holding pressure on the conjunctival sac for 2 min following the application of eye drops can reduce systemic absorption and side effects of eye drops. The conjunctival sac is the space between the lower eyelid and the eyeball. The nurse should instruct the client to gently close their eyes after applying eye drops and press their index finger against the inner corner of their eye for 2 minutes. This can block the tear duct that drains fluid from the eye to the nose and prevent it from entering the bloodstream.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because administering medications and electrolytes is not the primary purpose of inserting a nasogastric tube for a client with acute peritonitis. Medications and electrolytes can be given through other routes, such as IV or oral.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because dilating the stomach as a presurgical preparation is not a relevant Reason for inserting a nasogastric tube for a client with acute peritonitis. Dilating the stomach may be done before some types of gastric surgery, but it does not apply to peritonitis.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because stating that you will not be able to eat for several days is not an adequate explanation for inserting a nasogastric tube for a client with acute peritonitis. This statement does not address the rationale or the benefits of the procedure. It may also cause anxiety and resentment in the client.
Choice D Reason: This is the correct choice because removing secretions and decompressing the stomach is the main Reason for inserting a nasogastric tube for a client with acute peritonitis. Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum, the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. It can cause abdominal distension, pain, nausea, and vomiting. A nasogastric tube can suction out the gastric contents and reduce the pressure and irritation in the abdomen.
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