A client who is agitated and assaultive and unable to be verbally de-escalated is on the inpatient unit. The doctor ordered medications for the nurse to administer to the client. Which medication would the nurse question?
Diphenhydramine
Ondansetron
Lorazepam
Haloperidol
The Correct Answer is B
a. Diphenhydramine: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that can also be used for its sedative properties to help calm an agitated client.
b. Ondansetron: Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not for managing agitation or assaultive behavior. The nurse should question this order as it is not appropriate for the client's current symptoms.
c. Lorazepam: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for its anxiolytic and sedative effects, making it appropriate for calming an agitated client.
d. Haloperidol: Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication commonly used to manage severe agitation and aggressive behavior.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a. a client communicates significant distress. While significant distress is important to consider, it alone does not necessarily indicate a risk for developing mental illness unless it also impacts daily functioning and coping mechanisms.
b. maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning. This choice is correct because it reflects a combination of maladaptive coping (which can exacerbate mental health issues) and interference with daily functioning (a key indicator of mental illness according to DSM-5 criteria).
c. thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria. While alignment with DSM-5 criteria is crucial for diagnosis, this choice alone does not address the risk aspect. The focus should be on behaviors that lead to impairment in daily functioning and coping.
d. a client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection. Using defense mechanisms is a normal part of human behavior and not necessarily indicative of mental illness risk unless these mechanisms are maladaptive and interfere with functioning.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a. Excessive time spent discussing psychosocial stressors: Somatic Symptom Disorder focuses on physical symptoms, not necessarily psychological factors.
b. Disproportionate and persistent thoughts about the seriousness of one's symptoms: This is a hallmark symptom of Somatic Symptom Disorder. The client is likely preoccupied with their health beyond what's medically warranted.
c. Amnestic episodes in which the client is pain free: Amnesia is not a characteristic symptom of Somatic Symptom Disorder.
d. Lack of physical symptoms: Somatic Symptom Disorder by definition involves physical symptoms, even if they are not medically explained.
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